freqflyer07281972
unread,Nov 9, 2012, 3:37:43 AM11/9/12Sign in to reply to author
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Dear Bruno and other loyal followers of the list,
I had a thought tonight -- half baked and somewhat vague, but nevertheless I thought relevant to your discussions here...
Is it not true, on the basis of what you laid out in Sane2004, that there is a necessarily inverse relationship between omnipotence and omniscience? For consider, the UDA, whatever it may be, has the infinite power to continue to crank out the algorithim. We, as admittedly self-consistent and yet ignorant of the fact of our self-consistency, have the ability to be omniscient (in the sense that we know the math that leads to our lack of omniscience and yet implies a universal unfolding of every possibility, all of which you will be there to witness) yet utterly unable to interfere with the omnipotence of the UDA, which continues cranking out its various arithmetical possibilities through its own omnipotence, utterly oblivious of the subjectivity (ies) involved.
I'm looking forward to all of your responses for the pleasure of learning about this stuff...
Thanks for all being so smart and lucid, even when you do have opinions I don't necessarily agree with (looking at you, John Clark)
Cheers,
Dan