> On May 2, 2017, at 7:37 PM, Andrew Gelman <
Gel...@stat.columbia.edu> wrote:
>
> Bayes posterior mean is _calibrated_: If we label thata_hat = E(theta|y), then E(theta | theta_hat) = theta_hat, where the expectation is taken over the joint distribution of y and theta.
You mean this:
E[theta | theta-hat] = INTEGRATE theta * p(y, theta | theta-hat) d.y d.theta
= theta-hat
I'm still trying to understand how to think about p(y, theta | theta-hat).
> But Bayes posterior mean is not _unbiased_. Unbiased is E(theta_hat | theta) = theta. Bayes posterior mean can never be unbiased under this definition.
I'm pretty confident this is right
E[theta-hat | theta] = INT theta-hat(y) p(y | theta) d.y
= INT (INT theta' p(theta' | y) d.theta') p(y | theta) d.y
!= theta
but then my calc isn't really up to going further. If everything distributed nicely
it'd be
INT theta' p(theta' | y) p(y | theta) d.theta' d.y
But then I'm stuck in understanding why this can't be theta.
Sort of the flip side of posterior predictive---it's the posterior estimative
or something like that.
- Bob