A reference question

[Bishoy Habib]

Dear scholars, 

This line is from Ibn Al-Tayyib's commentary on Mark. 

وهيرودس طرده حموه ملك الفطراس لاجل امتهانه لابنته

My question is about the meaning of the word الفطراس. A different MS has it has القطراس.

Herod Antipas is the person who had John the Baptist killed. His father-in-law was the Nabatean king. I am theorizing that الفطراس is a different way of saying/writing البترا(س) i.e. Petra but I don't have much evidence to support this theory other than that ف and ط could be conceivably construed as ب and ت. Even if this is true, why add س at the end?

Any thought would be appreciated.

Regards,

Bishoy Habib 

[Andy Hilkens]

Dear Bishop,

It is most likely a mistake for Antipater.

Best wishes,

Andy

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[Alexander Treiger]

Dear Bishoy,

ملك الفطراس is a construct (iḍāfa), therefore الفطراس has to be a geographical term, not the king's proper name.

I believe this should be translated as "and Herod was expelled by his father-in-law, the king of Petra, because he had humiliated his daughter" [i.e., Herod had humiliated his own wife, the king of Petra's daughter]. The "s" at the end is the Greek genitive ending. It is not uncommon for Arabic texts translated (directly or indirectly) from Greek to occasionally preserve a Greek case ending.

Best wishes,

Alexander

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[Alexander Treiger]

Just to clarify, I'm not saying Ibn al-Tayyib's text is translated from Greek, only that this particular tradition embedded in Ibn al-Tayyib's narrative may ultimately go back to a Greek source.

Anyway, this is just my two cents...

[Bishoy Habib]

Dear Andy and Alexander, 

Thank you for your responses. 

Alexander, I agree that the word has to be a geographical name and appreciate the illuminating piece of info regarding Greek case endings. 

Regards,

Bishoy

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