Wolfgang pointed out to me that the pivot based answer is wrong -
fortunately I have another explanation :)
If we have the block matrix
A B^T
B 0
where A is SPD and B has linearly independent rows, this matrix has
equal eigenvalues to
I 0 A B^T A B^T
* =
-B A^-1 I B 0 0 -B A^-1 B^T
since the eigenvalues of the leftmost matrix are all 1 (its triangular
with 1s on the main diagonal). The eigenvalues of the rightmost matrix
are the eigenvalues of A and the eigenvalues of -B A^-1 B^T. Since A
is SPD, we can rewrite A^-1 = L L^T (its Cholesky factorization) so -B
A^-1 B^T = -B L L^T B^T = -(B L) (B L)^T: a second Cholesky
factorization. Hence the bottom right is negative definite and
therefore the matrix as a whole is indefinite.
Thanks,
David
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