On 5/31/12 12:16 PM, in article
b73e54ea-62ba-4529...@googlegroups.com, "cc"
<
scat...@hotmail.com> wrote:
> On Thursday, May 31, 2012 2:50:45 PM UTC-4, Clogwog wrote:
>> "Snit" <
use...@gallopinginsanity.com> schreef in bericht
>> news:CBEBCEFF.2221%use...@gallopinginsanity.com...
>>> You have not answered these questions:
>>
>> IMHO, he doesn't owe you an answer.
>
> I already answered them.
Well, but you showed no understanding.
>>> 1) What is an inflection point on a curve?
>
> Where the second derivative changes sign. I already told you that.
Looking back I do see where you said:
-----
I know exactly what an inflection point is. It's where the
second derivative changes sign, and it's exactly where the
sigma lines are in your supposed incorrect examples.
-----
But then you also denied the top example here:
<
http://tmp.gallopinginsanity.com/sd.png> has the inflection points (the
standard deviation lines) drawn incorrectly. It clearly does. You had (and
maybe still have) no idea that the inflection point is where the curve's
concavity changes. *Clearly* in the first example this is wrong.
There is no doubt you at least were completely clueless about this, or you
would not have claimed:
cc:
-----
Yes, the first sigma lines are always at an inflection
points. And ALL THE EXAMPLES YOU LINKED TO HAD THE LINES
DRAWN AT INFLECTION POINTS.
-----
The emphasis, by the way, is yours. You were so amazingly sure of yourself.
And so amazingly and obviously wrong. But you will not admit to it, even
though the examples I showed you *were* clearly wrong... with the most
obvious example being the one shown at the top of this image:
<
http://tmp.gallopinginsanity.com/sd.png>.
I mean, really, how hard is it to see that is very, very wrong. It is.
Your denials just prove your ignorance. But have fun denying that - it is
what you do!
>>> 2) How does the distance from the mean to the inflection
>>> points on a bell curve relate to a standard deviation...
>
> The first standard deviation is always at the inflection point and vice versa.
It is the distance from the mean to the inflection point... which is
completely contrary to your claims before:
cc:
-----
It's area under the curve, not distance from center you
idiot. Jesus Christ, give up now.
-----
It is not distance from the mean. Repeat: it is not
distance from the mean.
-----
Good to see you now know your previous claims were flat our wrong. Or will
you deny that, too... even though you have now admitted I was right to tell
you it is the distance from the mean to the inflection points (on a bell
curve, of course).
>>> and how does this mesh with your claim that the distance
>>> from the mean is irrelevant to the standard deviation?
>
> I pointed out that the distance to the first standard deviation/inflection
> points is not the same for every curve, which is true.
It is *always* the distance from the mean to the inflection point on a bell
curve. Always. Exactly the same. And remember, this is easy to see: it is
where the concavity changes (*always*!). And thus it is easy to see when a
depiction is significantly wrong (but, as I note above, you did not know
this... but you will deny it... as is your habit).
Of course, bell curves can be tall or short or wide or think or big or
small... depending on the data and how big the image is. This, apparently,
was some big epiphany for you that you felt the need to share, even though
it is very, very basic knowledge and there as no reason to think anyone else
would not have known that (I mean, really, for an adult to find this to be
even slightly noteworthy he or she would have to be quite daft).
> You seemed to think that standard devation measured distance from the mean,
> not area under the curve which is why you were confused when different curves
> had the first standard deviation/inflection points at different distances, but
> always covering ~68% of the area.
It is the distance from the mean to the inflection points on a bell curve.
The distance. Measured from the mean. To the inflection points on a bell
curve.
You claimed I was wrong to say it was the distance. You were the one who
was flat out wrong.
>>> 3) You repeatedly claim I used both Excel and Numbers
>>> incorrectly to come up with the linear trend lines I
>>> showed you. What do you think is the right procedure and
>>> what do you think I did wrong? Be roughly as specific in
>>> your response as I was in showing you what I did to get
>>> the trend line in Excel.
>
> I offered many times before to show you the right procedure, you just shrugged
> it off.
I already showed you the right procedure:
<
http://tmp.gallopinginsanity.com/LinearTrendLineCreation.mov>
It is not like there is a question to that being correct, in either Excel or
Numbers (and I show both).
You like to pretend otherwise because you know I am right. There is no "if"
here... what I show is exactly fine for drawing the linear trend lines.
And you will *always* run from this question... not even you believe your BS
claims about me somehow getting it wrong. You simply do not. If you did
you would be rubbing it in my face and having a party - just imagine, cc
*finally* getting to show where Snit was wrong! You would be jumping for
joy and posting it in your signature every day.
You can pretend otherwise, but we both know you would be lying. And, guess
what, you will lie... because you are a liar. You pretend to be
knowledgeable about things you are clearly very, very ignorant about.
> Since you're going to continue to lie I'd prefer to just laugh at your
> ignorance. Here's a hint, your line was a poor predictor of the months it
> covered, not to mention the very next month! Now compare that to mine. I (and
> I believe others) have pointed out the term for how good of a fit a trend line
> is in other posts, which you conveniently ignored at the time. Go back, find
> that term, and then you'll be on the right track. Happy to
> help.
You have *nothing* to add when it comes to what I might have done wrong when
drawing those linear trend lines. Nothing. Because, well, I was (and am)
right.
It really is that simple. Stop trying to make it seem more complex.
Are you suggesting you *really* believe your own BS? LOL! That would be
funny if you did.
Keep in mind: the only claim of mine is that those are correctly drawn and
calculated linear trend lines. I know you have tried to push other topics
such as what type of trend line was selected and why, etc., but that is not
relevant to your claim that I did something wrong in creating those linear
trend lines.
Remember that... if you can!
>>> Keep in mind: I have already given you the answer to each of those
>>> questions.
>>>
>> This discussion, a very boring one, is leading nowhere, please try to accept
>> that cc has his arguments to disagree with you.
>
> I have more than arguments, I have mathematical fact.
LOL! You have your ignorance and your refusal to admit when you are wrong.
I mean, really, you have yet to even admit you were wrong with the quotes
above (and repeated here):
cc:
-----
Yes, the first sigma lines are always at an inflection
points. And ALL THE EXAMPLES YOU LINKED TO HAD THE LINES
DRAWN AT INFLECTION POINTS.
-----
cc:
-----
It's area under the curve, not distance from center you
idiot. Jesus Christ, give up now.
-----
It is not distance from the mean. Repeat: it is not
distance from the mean.
-----
Flat out wrong on your part. Not if. Not maybe. Not could be. You simply
were wrong. Completely and utterly wrong.
But you will *never* admit to it. Never. And if you do happen to prove me
wrong I will admit to it readily... it is what I do. You simply are not as
moral of a person as I am. But you are amusing!
--
🙈🙉🙊