Humans have 30,000 genes; lets call this gene knowledge. We also have
extra material in our DNA that turn on/off the genes; lets call this
non-gene knowledge. Note that even monkeys have about 30,000 genes. So
do frogs. So why are monkeys more complex than frogs and why are
humans more complex than monkeys?
First I'll define *complex*?
*Frogs minds have *hardwired rules*; these are implicitly known.
*Monkey minds have that plus *softwired situations* and *softwired rules*
*Human minds have that plus *softwired logics*; which can be
implicitly or explicitly learned.
Note that in my theory of knowledge...
*Softwired rules = DD's rules of thumb
*Explicitly-known softwired logics = DD's universal explanations
...and that...
1. Frogs learn (hardwired) implicit rules.
2. Monkeys do that plus they learn (softwired) implicit situations and rules.
3. Pre-language Humans do that plus they learn (softwired) logics implicitly.
4. Post-language Humans do that plus they learn (softwired) logics explicitly.
So consider this question: After millions of years of evolution from
basic animals into more complex animals, and then into even more
complex animals, why didn't the number of genes increase? The answer
is DD's principle of universality.
The existing 30,000 genes were enough to create ever more universal
animals. That set of genes was universal.
1. As soon as this level was reached, gene knowledge creation stopped
but evolution continued. At this point only non-gene knowledge
creation was occurring; and so was hardwired implicit 1st order
knowledge. This resulted in frogs.
2. Then the non-gene knowledge reached a level where softwired
implicit 0th/1st order knowledge creation was occurring. This resulted
in monkeys.
3. Then the non-gene knowledge reached a level where softwired
implicit 2nd order knowledge creation was occurring. This resulted in
humans; and evolution stopped.
4. Then explicit 2nd order knowledge creation was occurring. This
resulted in language.
At stage...
1. Universality stopped gene knowledge creation.
2. Universality stopped non-gene knowledge creation.
What do you think?
> I think I now understand universality in biology.
>
> Humans have 30,000 genes; lets call this gene knowledge. We also have
> extra material in our DNA that turn on/off the genes; lets call this
> non-gene knowledge. Note that even monkeys have about 30,000 genes. So
> do frogs. So why are monkeys more complex than frogs and why are
> humans more complex than monkeys?
When you talk about genes in this sentence are you using that term in the same sense as in BoI, and FoR? That is, genes are replicators that happen to to instantiated in DNA and RNA. If this non-gene knowledge isn't in replicators then it can't have arisen by evolution, so I think there must be something wrong with this paragraph.
Alan
But as for the non-gene stuff being part of evolution, I am sure. So are geneticists.
This is wrong on two counts. The first is that many of the differences between humans and other apes are due to memetic evolution as explained in Chapters 15 and 16 of BoI.
The second problem is that genes are just replicators made of DNA and RNA - that is they are stretches of DNA whose properties help to cause their own replication. A stretch of DNA (strand A) may code for protein that acts only on other DNA (strand B) to alter the circumstances under which strand B's proteins are expressed. Strand A still contributes causally to its own replication because if there are two different variants of strand A, then the proteins in other genes may be expressed differently by those two variants and this can affect the organism's ability to propagate strand A, so strand A still counts as a gene.
Alan
>> The second problem is that genes are just replicators made of DNA and RNA - that is they are stretches of DNA whose properties help to cause their own replication. A stretch of DNA (strand A) may code for protein that acts only on other DNA (strand B) to alter the circumstances under which strand B's proteins are expressed. Strand A still contributes causally to its own replication because if there are two different variants of strand A, then the proteins in other genes may be expressed differently by those two variants and this can affect the organism's ability to propagate strand A, so strand A still counts as a gene.
>
> I wonder if the answer that would reconcile your idea with my idea is
> as simple as redefining the term *gene*. Before we learned that there
> are only 30,000 genes, we didn't know about the non-genes. These non-
> genes are replicators just like genes are. So both genes and non-genes
> are acting they way you describe in DNA and RNA. But I think the
> reason that geneticists don't label the non-genes in a better way is
> that the non-genes don't create anything. They are the management
> while the genes are the factories.
>
> What do you think?
It may be true that some geneticists label genes in the way you are suggesting. However, if that is true, then it would be better to use the common term gene to denote a genetic replicator and if we need to add further distinctions we can talk of ordinary genes and regulator genes or something like that. To simply use the term "non-gene" for genes that influence their replication by affecting the expression of other genes is very unspecific. My sock could be called a "non-gene" because it has nothing to do with genetics, but it doesn't regulate the expression of genes in a knowledge laden way.
Alan
> On Jan 2, 6:11 pm, Rami Rustom <ramir...@gmail.com> wrote:
>
>> No. Biological evolution has stopped. Genes are no longer replicating
>> based on their fitness. Our technology is preventing it. Our
>> technology keeps people alive therefore genes are no longer competing
>> with their allele counterparts.
>
> The evidence doesn't support that belief. See the following two
> articles:
>
> http://www.pnas.org/content/early/2011/09/28/1104210108
Says
> Here we study life-history variation in an insular preindustrial French-Canadian population
If they are intentionally studying insular pre-modern people, how is that relevant to Rami's claim about modern *technology* preventing continued biological evolution?
> http://www.livescience.com/7971-humans-evolving-brains-shrink.html
Says
> Comprehensive scans of the human genome reveal that hundreds of our genes show evidence of changes during the past 10,000 years of human evolution.
How are changes since 10,000 years ago relevant to Rami's claims about modern technology, which has only been around for, say, 100 years?
Where I'd want to start is by considering: what are the selection pressures and how are they met? We have to come up with explanations.
For example, in modern technological society you do not need to be physically strong to have children. And the number of children you have is primarily up to you, not up to the sort of fitness that would have mattered 100,000 years ago.
So if there was evidence we are stronger than we used to be -- which would not surprise me -- I would look at things like diet, leisure time for exercise, cultural preferences and improved training methods. Not genes since there isn't a compelling explanation of why there'd be a substantial selection pressure on genes for this.
Does that methodology make sense to others?
-- Elliot Temple
http://elliottemple.com/
> I don't like the term "devolution" because it implies that organisms
> that lose some structures or functions are degenerate forms. This
> term arises from the teleological misconception that evolution always
> progresses toward greater complexity or perfection.
The term 'devolution' implies only that evolution *sometimes* produces greater 'complexity or perfection' (or, more precisely, knowledge, or progress), and sometimes goes the other way.
> In fact, all
> species -- simple and complex -- are adapted to their respective
> environments.
All? Is a species that is about to go extinct adapted to its environment? Is a species that is rapidly evolving new adaptations, adapted to its environment? Is our species adapted to life in the Great Rift Valley? Evidently those species all have *some adaptations* to their environments, but to make your case that 'devolution' is a misleading term, you would need to claim that all species are about *equally well* adapted to their environments.
-- David Deutsch
So my devolution term is equivalent to *reverse evolution*. Cool.
> In experiments, fruit flies that have evolved for 100 generations
Do you mean that the researchers presented the flies with selective
pressures and that the genotype changed causing a change in phenotype,
and that it took 100 generations to cause this change?
> can return to the original phenotype in 20 generations.
If you answered yes to my above question, then yes this statement
makes sense. F-genes evolve slower. M-genes much faster.
> There are many cases of organisms losing traits, such as snakes losing
> their limbs.
Yes phenotype changes, i.e. erased, but the genotype still exists,
i.e. the f-genes are still there. And that snake line of species could
grow legs again with the proper selective pressures and some luck.
But this begs the question, do the f-genes last forever? No. And your
answer below explains why.
> In some cases, lost traits can be regained, e.g., stick insects losing
> and regaining wings. If the regaining takes place after a short
> period of time, it's possible the organism could regain its original
> phenotype. But it is also possible, especially if a lot time has
> elapsed, that the regained trait only appears to be the same but it
> based on a different genotype (i,e., convergent evolution).
Ah yes convergent evolution happens too. Fascinating!!!
> There are also examples of organisms streamlining their genomes --
> that is, eliminating or inactivation redundant genetic information.
Hmm. How does that work? Do they have an explanation? Or you maybe?
--Rami
WOW 30 million years!?!?! I guess for the ant line of species thats
not a long time. 1,100 sub species that all of that same genotype. And
currently in nature, only 6 of those 1,100 show the phenotype. I
wonder what the natural selective pressures are that turn on and off
the m-genes that cause the phenotype changes.
So the researchers used the hormone from the subspecies that already
show the phenotype to induce the m-genes to turn on in the other
subspecies.
And the researchers provided a conjecture for why the genotype wasn't lost:
> The process that produces the supersoldiers is an exaggeration of the one that produces the normal soldiers. It involves the same hormone, so it may have been impossible for the ants to get rid of the supersoldier programme entirely, without losing soldiers completely.
And the researchers also said that the induced phenotypes aren't
exactly the same as the natural ones:
> The ancestral potential has been locked in place for 35-60 million years, but when it comes back, it comes back really raw. The supersoldiers in P.obtusospinosa aren’t like the ones in P.rhea. There are differences in their behaviour and the way they’re used. It’s an interesting mix of retention and novelty. In the paper, we emphasise the sameness, but it’s actually a creative force too.
And the researchers provided a conjecture as to what selective
pressures turn on the m-genes:
> It also seems the dormant supersoldier programme spontaneously reactivates in Pheidole species from time to time. Indeed, that’s how this study started – Abouheif was studying a familiar species of ants (P.morrisi) when he suddenly found these monstrous soldiers that he had never seen before. From past experiments, we know that Pheidole sometimes produce supersoldiers if they are particularly well-nourished. “When these ancestral potentials are locked in place, there are mutations that release them at low frequencies. When natural selection needs them, it takes hold of it.
Thanks for the info. Please if you find more things like this, keep it
coming. :)
-- Rami