Another Question: Lecture 3, Slide 38

[Dan]

Hi Dan

Again, last slide of Lecture 3:

... the slide says....."Say recessive phenotype is at frequency of
0.49. Then recessive genotype is also 0.49. So p2 = 0.49 and p = 0.7.
Therefor q = 0.3. So q2 = 0.09 and 2pq = 2 (0.7)(0.3) = 0.42."

Here is my question: If the recessive phenotype and genotype = 0.49,
would this not mean that q^2 = 0.49? and therefore q = 0.7?

[Lauren Wondolowski]

My understanding is that the assignment of p and q is more of less arbitrary.  Therefore, you can make p2 or q2 equal to the recessive genotype with the same result.  (and the dominant genotype will be the other one.)

On 7/26/07, Dan <dts...@hotmail.com> wrote:

Hi Dan

Again, last slide of Lecture 3:

... the slide says....."Say recessive phenotype is at frequency of
0.49.  Then recessive genotype is also 0.49. So p2 = 0.49 and p = 0.7.

Therefor q = 0.3 . So q2 = 0.09 and 2pq = 2 (0.7)(0.3) = 0.42."