Non-zero tariffs between countries that belong to the same Customs Union?

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bellon....@gmail.com

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Jun 18, 2014, 4:13:45 AM6/18/14
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Hi,
How is it possible that the average tariff ("tavg") of France on Austrian goods is strictly positive in 1996, 1997 and 2000? By then, Austria had already joined the EU customs union and there should be no tariff between the union members. I found similar positive tariffs for many other countries.
Thanks,
Matt

Samuel Munyaneza

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Jun 18, 2014, 5:45:45 AM6/18/14
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That should not happen. We don't have a separate  tariff for individual EU countries as they all apply the same tariff.

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bellon....@gmail.com

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Jun 18, 2014, 7:06:06 AM6/18/14
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I should have been more precise, this happens when I look at the EU tariffs on Austrian goods.I know that it should not happen anyway. 
However this is what I obtain:
* I downloaded from bulk download the tariffs imposed by the EU 
* when I compute the average tariff ("tavg") by tariffyear across all HS categories when the importer is the EU (code=918) and the partner is Austria (code=40), I get:
Tariff year  | Mean
-----------------------------
1996       | 2.29
1997       | 5.69
2000       | 2.12
2009       |      0

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Samuel Munyaneza

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Jun 18, 2014, 8:42:28 AM6/18/14
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We will investigate why this is happening as it should not happen. Just ignore those cases at the moment
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