Nietzsche question

[Amber Partington]

Hey Philosophers,

A student brought up a question in relation to Section 228 of BGAE.

"... what is right for one cannot by any means therefore be right for another, that the demand for one morality for all is detrimental to precisely the higher men, in short that there exists an order of rank between man and man, consequently also between morality and morality."

My student would like to know if Nietzsche is actually endorsing slave morality for the slaves... ie. just so long as the moral system is right for the rank of the man

What do you all think?

Cheers,

[James Watt]

Hey Amber & all,

I reckon it's kinda right, but further still that talking about it in categories or systems (e.g. "slave morality for the slaves") is a bit reductive. He's surely not about just finding the right system of rules to fit the right individual, right? 

He definitely does think that some people shouldn't be aspiring to great heights where they wouldn't be able to bear that kinda life, for a whole variety of reasons. But this doesn't imply that some people are naturally or inherently born as "slaves", like these are neat categories that people either are or aren't sorted into, where tension and growth and stagnation etc aren't to be found across a life:  " I add at once that in all higher and mixed cultures attempts at mediation between the two are apparent and more frequently confusion and mutual misunderstanding between them, indeed sometimes their harsh juxtaposition—even within the same man, within one soul. " (s260)

Slightly related, but one of my faves from the Gay Science:

The only universal moral rule is that everyone deserves a great holiday break,

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[Amber Partington]

Thanks James (and all)

I agree with everything you have said (particularly your universal moral rule)... my voice is the only one they hear, so I really appreciate getting some additional thoughts to share with them.

Happy end of term (for most of us I think)!

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