Hi Vampire users,
I've got several questions around susceptibility. It defines how much it will become magnetized in an applied magnetic field. I don't understand then how can I get a peak in the susceptibility curve around Curie temperature meaning that it is more likely to magnetize at that point. But at the same time, the normalized magnetization curve (computed with curie-temperature simulation) keeps increasing after that point ?
Also the output is set to be in 1/T because the magnetization is normalized ? Can someone explain that to me ?
Also can I get a dimensionless susceptibility by multiplying the whole output by the saturation induction mu0*M at 0K ?
Thanks in advance,