Hello,
I am using a dynamic occupancy model for the first time and just want to understand the interpretation properly.
I created my candidate models and my best model based on AIC used
psi ~ 1
gamma ~ years
epsilon ~ Forest
p ~ Forest*Fire
Years refers to years post-fire, and I have it as numeric, ranging between 2 and 5. Forest is a factor with 3 levels, and Fire is a factor with 2 levels.
When I predict colonization I get
Est SE LinComb Int Years
0.7027421 0.1468306 0.8603896 1 3
0.3773687 0.2016311 -0.5007320 1 4
0.1344871 0.1682102 -1.8618536 1 5
What I want to make sure I understand correctly is, colonization is defined as the probability that a site unoccupied at primary sampling period t is occupied by the species at t+1 (colonization). Is the colonization probability at t+2 calculated using the unoccupied sites at the primary sampling period t or at t+1? Because if it's defined off of t, my results are impossible, but it would make sense if it's t+1.
Thank you