news:yxkfs.49177$jY.2...@fx25.am4...
>>> We have both faith in Christ and the faith of Christ. Likewise the faith
>>> of God and faith in God.
>>
>> Sounds ever so deep. Or could it be theological nonsense?
>
> Well since both are clearly stated in scripture I'll go for simple truth.
>
> The faith of Christ - not having mine own righteousness, which is *of* the
> law, but that which is through the *faith* *of* *Christ*,
> Faith in Christ - For ye are all the children *of* *God* by *faith* in
> Christ Jesus.
>
> Faith of God - ^3 For what if some did not believe? shall their unbelief
> make the faith of God without effect?
> Faith in God - And Jesus answering saith unto them, Have *faith* *in*
> *God*.
This is a Greek thing. As in English, there are different ways of saying
the same thing in Greek. In this instance, we have a usage of the genitive
case, which, being translated literally over into English, has been latched
onto by Calvinists, because it appears to lend support to that system.
However, an examination of how these constructions are used, should be
sufficient to guide one to the correct understanding. If you can be
bothered, Phil, then check out these verses in the English and the Greek:
Mark 11:22 - (literally) have faith of God
Luke 6:12 - (lit) in prayer of God
Acts 3:16 - (lit) faith of his name
Acts 4:9 - (lit) good work of an infirm man
Galatians 2:16 - (lit) the faith of Jesus Christ... the faith of Christ
Galatians 3:22 - (lit) by faith of Jesus Christ
Ephesians 3:12 - (lit) through the faith of him
Philippians 1:27 - (lit) the faith of the gospel
Philippians 3:9 - (lit) through faith of Christ
Colossians 2:12 - (lit) faith of the working of God
James 2:1 - (lit) the faith of our Lord Jesus Christ
Revelation 14:12 - (lit) the faith of Jesus
a comparison of these examples - there are sure to be many others - will
show that the genitive usage here is not a mark of possession. This is why
I keep on saying that the only way to understand any word (or in this case,
grammatical structure) is to note *how* it is used.
So to summarise this section:
Mark 11:22 - have faith in God
Luke 6:12 - in prayer to God
Acts 3:16 - faith in his name
Acts 4:9 - good work towards an infirm man
Galatians 2:16 - faith in Jesus Christ... faith in Christ
Galatians 3:22 - by faith in Jesus Christ
Ephesians 3:12 - through faith in him
Philippians 1:27 - faith in the gospel
Philippians 3:9 - through faith in Christ
Colossians 2:12 - faith in the working of God
James 2:1 - faith in our Lord Jesus Christ
Revelation 14:12 - faith in Jesus
This then resolves the problem.
__________________________________________________________
> "Whom *God* hath set forth to be a propitiation through *faith* *in* his
> blood, to declare his righteousness for the remission of sins that are
> past, through the forbearance of *God*;"
>
> So we have faith in the blood of Jesus and in that way it is a
> propitiation which declares his righteoueness which brings a remission of
> sins.
>
> In other words faith in the act of atonement by Jesus (the shedding of his
> blood) brings remission of sins.
That is the one they use. And apart from reading it into OT types and
allegories, there really is no other argument. This is the source of the
'salvation-through-faith-in-the-atonement' theory, this one verse.
The verse is genuinely ambiguous, and all depends on the punctuation.
Similar to 'I say unto you this day, you shall be with me in Paradise', or,
'I would not have you to be ignorant brethren', or, 'Drink ye all of it'.
Notice how the Revised Version, and other more modern translations,
translate it:
'whom God set forth to be a propitiation, through faith, by his blood, to
shew his righteousness, because of the passing over of the sins done
aforetime, in the forbearance of God' (Romans 3:25)
This is not because of some wicked liberal plot to expunge the precious
blood. The preposition after the verb 'to believe' (pisteuo) is usually
'eis', sometimes 'epi', sometimes it is followed directly by a dative
without any preposition, and rarely with 'en' as in this particular case. I
have found just 4 clear examples of 'faith in' using 'en' - Mark 1:15;
Ephesians 1:15; Colossians 1:4; 2.Timothy 3:15.
'En' is often translated as 'by'. The expression 'in ('en') his blood' in
Greek, is also translated 'by his blood' in English, where the sense demands
it, e.g. Ephesians 2:13; 1.John 5:6; Revelation 1:5; 5:9. And this is the
reason why many scholars prefer the RV take on Romans 3:25.
But a doctrine is known by its fruit. Faith in Christ (as it is revealed in
the NT) always leads to good works. It cannot do otherwise. Faith in the
atonement (which many mistake for 'faith in Christ') however, frequently
leads to bitter fruit. I am sure there are many who are reading these
words, who know exactly what I am talking about.
In addition to that, it is somewhat remarkable, that a doctrine so
important, should rest on the disputed translation of one solitary verse.
John Cooper