On Sun, 28 Oct 2012 09:40:02 +0000, Norman Wells put finger to keyboard and
The evidence is that they were told to go and clamp a car at a certain
address, and that when they got there they did so. As has been stated
elsewhere in this thread, the procedures followed by the bailiffs on the
ground do not include making any check as to the ownership of the vehicle.
Obviously, there's a very strong argument that their procedures should
include such a check, and certainly the company employing the clampers
seems to have be severely lacking in professionalism. But that's a
different issue; the only people who might have broken the law here are
those who actually applied the clamp, and the law gives them a perfectly
good defence.
>> Obviously, if a belief is prima facie implausible then it would be
>> hard to argue that it was held honestly. But it isn't necessary for
>> the clampers to justify why they clamped that particular car,
>> provided they were acting in accordance with their instructions when
>> they did.
>>
>>> If it's pointed out to them that they've clamped the
>>> property of someone else, they really do have to check and make sure.
>>
>> Yes, they do. But it would only become an offence if, having checked,
>> they then refuse to remove the clamp.
>
>That depends on whether their belief was an honest belief that the car
>they were clamping was one they were entitled to clamp. And for that
>there needs to be some evidence. In the circumstances described, I
>cannot see that they could possibly have any such evidence. Do you?
They were told to go to an address and clamp a car on those premises. They
got the right address, but they got the wrong car. The OP mentions that,
previously, cars at the address had had warnings left on them to the effect
that they might be clamped. I don't know how the clampers were asked by
their employer to identify the car which they would clamp, so anything in
this area is pure speculation. But there are a number of possibilities,
including:
1. They were told to clamp a car they found on the premises, without any
specific instruction as to which car.
2. They were told to clamp a car which had previously had a warning notice
attached (and was still attached when they got there).
3. They were told to clamp a car of a specific registration number.
Obviously, if the third is the case, then they must have been aware that
they were clamping the wrong car. And, if so, then a strong argument can be
made for it being a criminal offence. But I suspect that the first is more
likely, based on the information given by the OP.
There's also a separate issue here. Bailiffs are allowed to seize property
to pay off a debt, but there are certain items which they are not allowed
to seize. Among those, obviously, are things belonging to someone other
than the debtor. However, if there is a dispute as to ownership, it is
usually necessary for the debtor to provide evidence of non-ownership
rather than the other way round. The bailiffs certainly don't have to take
anyone's word for it that they don't own something (as if they did, it
would make seizure trivially easy to avoid simply by making a statement -
falsely, if necessary - that you don't own anything). In particular, if the
debtor is a householder living alone, then anything present on the premises
may be assumed to belong to the householder unless shown otherwise.
The CAB makes this point in their own advice:
Bailiffs will usually go ahead and take goods and leave it to you to show
that the goods don't belong to you or should not have been seized for
example, because they're protected goods.
If you have a dispute with the bailiffs about ownership or you think
they've seized goods they shouldn't, get advice from a specialist
adviser, for example, at a Citizens Advice Bureau.
http://www.adviceguide.org.uk/england/debt_e/debt_action_your_creditor_can_take_e/debt_bailiffs_e/what_happens_if_the_bailiffs_get_in.htm
or
http://tinyurl.com/9qeoapy
I think, therefore, that the bailiffs would argue that they don't need to
check the ownership of a car, because the mere fact of it being on the
debtor's premises is enough to justify seizure and it's up to the debtor
and/or the true owner to show that they should not. As far as procedures
go, I don't think that's acceptable, because a car is something that is
more likely than many other items to be owned by a visitor to the premises.
So I still think that the OP has very strong grounds for complaint against
the council and their bailiffs here. But, as far as the law is concerned,
it would be very difficult to prove that the bailiffs had done anything
actually illegal.
Bailiffs often have a bad public perception, but in many cases (unlike debt
collectors, who are widely and usually rightly reviled) that's undeserved.
They do a difficult and necessary job of ensuring that people who are
legitimately owed money (and have had that debt confirmed by a court) can
obtain it. In the course of enforcing those judgments they are routinely
lied to, abused and threatened. The people they deal with are, often,
serial defaulters and deliberate debt-evaders. And the law recognises that,
and gives them a great deal of protection in their role provided they
adhere to the regulations governing their conduct.
None of that excuses them when they do act badly, and in the case described
by the OP it would appear that they have certainly done so. But nothing
described by the OP appears to have been illegal. Simply doing their job
badly and inconsiderately is not a criminal offence.