jazzman <
crl...@gmail.com> wrote:
> My daughter had an accident in her car yesterday. Not sure whom is
> responsible but witnesses are stating that the other car involved was
> travelling to fast
>
> She discovered today that the MOT had run out the day before the accident,
> although the car was booked in for a MOT today, because it's the car's
> first MOT there was some confusion when the car was actually due for a
> MOT.
Get this confirmed in writing by the garage she had it booked in at.
this will mitigate any charges that may be brought.
> Checking her insurance contract, one of the clauses states that the car
> must have a valid MOT. So this is a devastating discovery, which may mean
> that she is now responsible for the cost of repairs to her car and also
> the other car.
> Doing some googling, some knowledgeable people are stating that: a lack of
> MOT does NOT automatically void insurance despite what the "terms &
> conditions" may say.
> Please could someone confirm if this is fact or fiction?
The vast majority of Insurance Contracts state that the vehicle must be
in a 'roadworthy' condition. e.g., is a car roadworthy with a
non-working headlight in the daytime? It wouldnt pass an MOT in that
state, but it is roadworthy in daylight.
If it does state that the car MUST have a valid MOT certifcate, then it
is likely that she is stuffed, as she has broken one of the contractual
terms, so they can refuse to pay out.
In the real world, it is unlikely for an Ins. Co. to ask to see the MOT
Certicate, though, being as this Co. has it in their terms, it may mean
they will check.
If, as you state, the other vehicle was responsible, you may not be
having to pay anything, if it is found your story was the more
beleivable.
But, more than likely the Ins. Cos. will decide that each side pay their
own costs to repair.
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