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"by abuse of notation" vs. "by an abuse of notation"
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jaakov
Apr 30, 2015, 9:38:17 AM4/30/15
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Dear all:
Which one is correct and why:
- By abuse of notation, we use the same symbol here as in Section 1.
- By an abuse of notation, we use the same symbol here as in Section 1.
Thank you in advance,
Jaakov.
Which one is correct and why:
- By abuse of notation, we use the same symbol here as in Section 1.
- By an abuse of notation, we use the same symbol here as in Section 1.
Thank you in advance,
Jaakov.
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