English To Greek Translation Free

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Madelyn Westfall

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Aug 5, 2024, 12:34:10 PM8/5/24

to timmcardiwin

Cansomeone tell me about the translation of the word κεχαριτωμένη as it appears in the context of Luke 1:28 (where Gabriel greets Mary)? Specifically, is it a special word perhaps reserved to denote a very high status? Or a more common word? As a loose example, in English we might commonly say "yes, sir" to show respect to a customer or police officer but we would reserve "yes, your honor" for a judge. In the two English translations I have it says "favored one" and "favored woman" respectively. It seems a little weak considering the message that was about to be delivered. (In English 'favored' does not necessarily denote unusually high status. My favored beverages are coffee and Newcastle.)

"It is permissible, on Greek grammatical and linguistic grounds, to paraphrase kecharitomene as completely, perfectly, enduringly endowed with grace." (Blass and DeBrunner, Greek Grammar of the New Testament)

'Highly favoured' (kecharitomene). Perfect passive participle of charitoo and means endowed with grace (charis), enriched with grace as in Ephesians 1:6 . . . The Vulgate gratiae plena [full of grace] "is right, if it means 'full of grace which thou hast received'; wrong, if it means 'full of grace which thou hast to bestow' " (A.T. Robertson, Word Pictures in the New Testament, p. 14)

This word is a perfect past participle (a participle is a word formed using a verb which has the properties of an adjective, such as 'painted', 'broken'), and is composed of three grammatical features of note to us:

5 He predestined us for our being divinely adopted as sons through Jesus Christ, according to the good pleasure of His will, 6 unto the praise of His glorious grace with which *He graced [ἐχαρίτωσεν echaritōsen]* us in [His] Beloved. 7 In Him we have redemption through His blood: the forgiveness of our trespasses, according to the riches of His grace

Where as a sense of 'being now full and complete' is very much implicit: e.g. 'a burnt stick' implies the job of burning it is done and its effects remain to the present, and bears the result of that burning action.

Ephesians 1:6, John 1:14; Acts 6:8 imply nothing of the time of occurence of their being graced or filled with grace, or its lastingness, whereas κεχαριτωμένη is very rich in this regard: Mary was already 'graced' in a completed sense by the time he came to greet her!

The additional confirmation of a 'fullness' or 'completedness' is the ridiculousness of the contrary: 'you who were at one time in the past given grace by God.' That happens to every one. That can't be used as *a new title for Mary.*It is as ridiculous as saying to aformer millionaire now begger, 'Hail, you who at one time had millions.'

It should be understood that the word doesn't mean justified or imply it. But it can be interpreted as meaning that the 'gracedness' is due to being in a state of grace, or, justification. This is what the word meant to St. Jerome here. 'Full of grace' seems to be the normative meaning for him, though.

The sense in which Mary was graced (not "full of all possible grace," and the word for "full" is not used, as it is for Stephen and Christ) is not because of she possessed surpassing personal virtue, which is nowhere referred to - though no doubt she was a virtuous young women - but contextually it was because the Lord highly favored her, was with her, and graced her above women to be the mother of the Messiah, and which meaning of being graced is shown by her words in the magnificent Magnificat, and not because of anything she was full of.

" 'Highly favoured' (kecharitomene). Perfect passive participle of charitoo and means endowed with grace (charis), enriched with grace as in Ephesians 1:6 . . . The Vulgate gratiae plena [full of grace] "is right, if it means 'full of grace which thou hast received'; wrong, if it means 'full of grace which thou hast to bestow' " (A.T. Robertson, Word Pictures in the New Testament, p. 14)

the perfective past passive participle singular feminine nominative/vocative is "pamaloninta" which is statal like the perfect in Kione and the definitive form is pamalonintoji Thus God has made her the engracenment of mankind, the one he made out with as the real husband of Mary. His "Sweetie"

I was playing around with customizing my Bible Word Study guide when I noticed that I can see the Septuagint translation of a greek word into english, however it doesn't tell me the Septuagint translation of a hebrew word into greek.

Is there a way to make the Word Study guide show me how the Septuagint rendered a hebrew word? Is there another quick way to get at this info without having to open a search window or open up the original language bibles themselves?

I do see that I can change the bible from the NRSV to the Logos LXX in the normal translation section. However it would be nice to have that Septuagint translation section work for hebrew words. Then I can see the english and the greek translation info at the same time without having to switch back and forth.

Biblical scholars agree that the first five books of the Hebrew Bible were translated from Biblical Hebrew into Koine Greek by Jews living in the Ptolemaic Kingdom, centred on the large community in Alexandria, probably in the early or middle part of the third century BCE.[8] The remaining books were presumably translated in the 2nd century BCE.[4][9][10] Some targums translating or paraphrasing the Bible into Aramaic were also made during the Second Temple period.[11]

Few people could speak and even fewer could read in the Hebrew language during the Second Temple period; Koine Greek[3][12][13][14] and Aramaic were the most widely spoken languages at that time among the Jewish community. The Septuagint therefore satisfied a need in the Jewish community.[8][15]

King Ptolemy once gathered 72 Elders. He placed them in 72 chambers, each of them in a separate one, without revealing to them why they were summoned. He entered each one's room and said: "Write for me the Torah of Moshe, your teacher". God put it in the heart of each one to translate identically as all the others did.[6]

Philo of Alexandria writes that the number of scholars was chosen by selecting six scholars from each of the twelve tribes of Israel. Caution is needed here regarding the accuracy of this statement by Philo of Alexandria, as it implies that the twelve tribes were still in existence during King Ptolemy's reign, and that the Ten Lost Tribes of the twelve tribes had not been forcibly resettled by Assyria almost 500 years previously.[24] Although not all the people of the ten tribes were scattered, many peoples of the ten tribes sought refuge in Jerusalem and survived, preserving a remnant of each tribe and their lineages. Jerusalem swelled to five times its prior population due to the influx of refuges. According to later rabbinic tradition (which considered the Greek translation as a distortion of sacred text and unsuitable for use in the synagogue), the Septuagint was given to Ptolemy two days before the annual Tenth of Tevet fast.[15][25]

According to Aristobulus of Alexandria's fragment 3, portions of the Law were translated from Hebrew into Greek long before the well-known Septuagint version. He stated that Plato and Pythagoras knew the Jewish Law and borrowed from it.[26]

In the preface to his 1844 translation of the Septuagint, Lancelot Charles Lee Brenton acknowledges that the Jews of Alexandria were likely to have been the writers of the Septuagint, but dismisses Aristeas' account as a pious fiction. Instead, he asserts that the real origin of the name "Septuagint" pertains to the fact that the earliest version was forwarded by the authors to the Jewish Sanhedrin at Alexandria for editing and approval.[27]

The 3rd century BCE is supported for the translation of the Pentateuch by a number of factors, including its Greek being representative of early Koine Greek, citations beginning as early as the 2nd century BCE, and early manuscripts datable to the 2nd century BCE.[28] After the Torah, other books were translated over the next two to three centuries. It is unclear which was translated when, or where; some may have been translated twice (into different versions), and then revised.[29] The quality and style of the translators varied considerably from book to book, from a literal translation to paraphrasing to an interpretative style.

The translation process of the Septuagint and from the Septuagint into other versions can be divided into several stages: the Greek text was produced within the social environment of Hellenistic Judaism, and completed by 132 BCE. With the spread of Early Christianity, this Septuagint in turn was rendered into Latin in a variety of versions and the latter, collectively known as the Vetus Latina, were also referred to as the Septuagint[30][31][32] initially in Alexandria but elsewhere as well.[17] The Septuagint also formed the basis for the Slavonic, Syriac, Old Armenian, Old Georgian, and Coptic versions of the Christian Old Testament.[33]

The Septuagint is written in Koine Greek. Some sections contain Semiticisms, which are idioms and phrases based on Semitic languages such as Hebrew and Aramaic.[34] Other books, such as Daniel and Proverbs, have a stronger Greek influence.[20]

The Septuagint may also clarify pronunciation of pre-Masoretic Hebrew; many proper nouns are spelled with Greek vowels in the translation, but contemporary Hebrew texts lacked vowel pointing. However, it is unlikely that all Biblical Hebrew sounds had precise Greek equivalents.[35]