> What does Turing universality mean then for AI/Robot perception and consciousness, when we can mathematically prove that they can't
> access or know their fundamental reality?
Good morning Jason,
Is this a fact? That we can prove that software can never know their fundamental
reality?
If so, could you please summarize the proof?
What I find interesting here is the thought that perhaps, assuming materialism,
and that humans are "software" running on hardware, the proof can be extended to
us humans never being about to know our fundamental reality?
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To me, you guys are missing the most important part of the way we "compute".We compute on top of subjective qualities like redness and greenness via a subjective binding mechanism.This mechanism is essentially a detector of qualities, or as I believe qualities of physical reality.
If we were running on something that was qualitatively (physically) different, we would be able to detect that, since consciousness is a detector of physical qualities.
On Wed, 8 Oct 2025, Jason Resch wrote:
> On Wed, Oct 8, 2025, 4:15 AM efc via The Important Questions
> <the-importa...@googlegroups.com> wrote:
>
> > What does Turing universality mean then for AI/Robot perception and
> > consciousness, when we can mathematically prove that they can't access
> > or know their fundamental reality?
>
> Good morning Jason,
>
> Is this a fact? That we can prove that software can never know their
> fundamental reality?
>
> It follows from the Church-Turing thesis. This thesis cannot be proven (only
> disproven), but it almost universally believed to be true for many reasons. It
> is also foundational to computer science as we know it.
>
> See: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Church%E2%80%93Turing_thesis
>
> For more information about it and why it is accepted, and why it is so
> important to CS.
Thank you for the information. What a shame it cannot be proven, that would
certainly settle some interesting questions!
Btw, do you know if there are any competitors? In the wikipedia article, it says
that one way of looking at it is as a definition mechanical computability. Are
there any others, that work equally well?
> If so, could you please summarize the proof?
>
> The thesis says that everything that is computable, can be computed by a
> Turing machine.
...
> For example, a PC can simulate a Mac running Safari. And likewise a Mac can
> simulate a PC running Internet explorer.
>
> When emulated in this way, Safari has no idea that it is running (ultimately)
> on a PC rather than on real Mac hardware. This is because perfect emulability
> requires the program unfold exactly as it would had it run on the original
> genuine hardware. There is no room for deviation and hence there's no room for
> that program "to tell" it's being emulated in virtual hardware (a virtual
> machine).
>
> Turing emulability means, there is no hardware, no instruction set, for which
> a VM layer could not be implemented.
Makes perfect sense to me. As I wrote to Brent, the only three exceptions I can
think of are:
* Bugs (to continue the computer analogy).
* It's not proven, maybe a disproof will be produced?
* Breaking out with help from the outside.
But neither of those seem particularly satisfying to me.
> What I find interesting here is the thought that perhaps, assuming
> materialism, and that humans are "software" running on hardware, the
> proof can be extended to us humans never being about to know our
> fundamental reality?
>
> Exactly, if one assumes functionalism/computationalism, which says that
> producing a particular conscious state is only a matter of performing the
> right computation, then the Church-Turing thesis is a way of proving Cartesian
> doubt is a real and fundamental limitation for all conscious beings.
I agree. The big "if" is functionalism/computationalism, but since you know I
like the "behavioral" proof, it does seem to me that with every step forward in
the AI-sciences, with every progress, we get closer and closer to being able to
assume that functionalism is true with a very high probability of belief.
> For computationalism means you could always exist in a computer simulation of
> your environment, and The Church-Turing thesis says we can know nothing about
> the ultimate nature of the computer on which we run.
>
> We can even extend this to further say we could not know anything about the
> physics of the universe in which that computer exists, (aside from the fact
> that the physics permits the construction of a Turing machine).
What is interesting here is to think about what it tells us about the limits of
science and empiricism, and what "weight" to give to extrapolations. "Know" vs
speculation vs belief etc. But perhaps we should not open this can of worms. ;)
> I don't know that any philosophers have seen or acknowledged this connection
> between Cartesian doubt and the Church-Turing thesis, but I think it is quite
> clear and readily provable.
Well, yes, the relations between functionalism, church-turing (_if_ proven) and
cartesian doubt seem to be fairly clear, except to the degree of nitpicking that
one is comfortable with when it comes to demanding absolute proof vs having
something that is not disproven.
Best regards,
Daniel
> Jason
>
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Hi Jason,There are two different types of 'multiple realizability': specific and arbitrary.Arbitrary realizability is the way you can get a digital 1 from anything like "gallium, or silicon, or argon" or redness or greenness as long as you have an interpretation mechanism or dictionary to get the one from whatever physics is representing that 1.There is also specific multiple realizability in that multiple things have the same color quality. With specific realizability, you cann't get redness from greens.
You can't get a quality from nothing.
As I always say, give an example of how you could get or detect a quality from nothing, and I will accept your type of "functionalism" as legitimate. You never do this because it is impossible.
Let me ask you a question, do you agree that consciousness is a detector of qualities?
If someone is representing a 1 with redness, and someone else is representing a 1 with greeness, they are not like each other, right?, even though the 1 can be multiply realized by both redness and greenness?
On Thu, Oct 9, 2025, 9:32 AM Brent Allsop <brent....@gmail.com> wrote:Hi Jason,There are two different types of 'multiple realizability': specific and arbitrary.Arbitrary realizability is the way you can get a digital 1 from anything like "gallium, or silicon, or argon" or redness or greenness as long as you have an interpretation mechanism or dictionary to get the one from whatever physics is representing that 1.There is also specific multiple realizability in that multiple things have the same color quality. With specific realizability, you cann't get redness from greens.But you believe both reds and greens are fundamentally made from the same stuff: quarks and electrons.Depending on how quarks and electrons are arranged you can either get glutamate or glycine, or any number of other molecules.So there is a level at which you believe organization of (the same fundamental low.level stuff) is what determines whether you get redness or greenness as an emergent high level property of the quark-electron organization.You can't get a quality from nothing.Right there is something there that explains it, but as you show with your own beliefs, that quality can emerge from things which themselves, do not possess those qualities (only the potential to be arranged to provide such properties).As I always say, give an example of how you could get or detect a quality from nothing, and I will accept your type of "functionalism" as legitimate. You never do this because it is impossible.Not from nothing, but from a substrate, appropriately arranged and organized.
Let me ask you a question, do you agree that consciousness is a detector of qualities?I wouldn't say consciousness is a detector of qualities. Instead I would say a conscious state results from discrimination, relation, and comparison.
If someone is representing a 1 with redness, and someone else is representing a 1 with greeness, they are not like each other, right?, even though the 1 can be multiply realized by both redness and greenness?If a process is able to make finer distinctions then it is able to tell the two are not identical in all respects.