Though very interesting and obviously well-researched, I still found
myself somewhat skeptical of Ruth Bottigheimer's and others' new
outlook on the "trickle down" method of how fairy tales spread.
Although Robbie and Huntley have already given a summary of
Bottigheimer's main argument, I will do the same in as close to my own
words as possible.
Bottigheimer insinuates that the middle ages were the period where
fairy tales really hold their true origin. This time frame somewhat
makes sense to me because it would follow that fairy tales would
emerge during the Renaissance period, a period known for its artistic
and creative developments. Boccaccio and Sercambi in the early 1400s
were some of the earliest written fairy tale collectors, but
Straparola in the mid 1500s really revived the fairy tale obsession.
He kept with the authorship tradition, but broke the rule of
verisimilitude, which is why his rise and restoration stories
featuring "folk" people rather than princes and princesses were not as
popular with the upper class as were other writers of his time.
However, the few scholars or upper class people who did read his
restoration pieces seemed to like the basic plot line and wrote their
own versions, replacing the common folk with the upper class
equivalents, thus keeping with the authorship tradition. As
Bottigheimer often states, people were attracted to stories which they
could identify with, and the bourgeoisie could not easily identify
with stories featuring the proletariat. These restoration pieces with
princes and princesses as protagonists hit a peak during the 18th
century. It wasn't until after this uprising of fairy tales that the
fairy tales finally started to trickle down to the folk through
"school readers" and newspapers featuring the stories. Common folk
would memorize these fairy tales alongside their other studies as a
form of "education in being German."
Of all the evidence Bottigheimer presents, I find the argument during
the "Readership" section the most compelling and the most convincing.
Paper and books were products made for the upper class to enjoy, not
the common folk who could not afford, in either time or money, such
expensive leisure items. But what I feel is lacking from
Bottigheimer's argument is what was really going on before the middle
ages. Though I know someone must have come up with the first fairy
tale at some point in time, am I to believe it took as long as the
1400s for someone to devise the first fairy tale? That just seems
highly improbable to me. In the "Concluding Remarks," Bottigheimer
quotes Ulf Palmenfelt saying "the ideal folk tale [might have] never
existed in an oral tradition, but solely in printed and edited form,"
which I find even more difficult to believe. Though this may be a
current day perception, I feel that the idea of a fairy tale as we
know it would be most appealing to the "folk" who have more to strive
for in life and less to the rich upper class who are thought to have
everything. Why would the upper class want to read a restoration or
rise piece on how someone fought their way through adversity,
misfortune, and obstacles to get to the top and find a happy ending
when they already have reached their happy ending, and if they were
born rich, they probably never had to do any "fighting" to begin
with.
Basically, I'm arguing that scholars such as Bottigheimer are basing
their research on the only thing they have in front of them: hard
evidence, which in the case of fairy tales, means written fairy tales.
I believe, however, that fairy tales must have existed before the
1400s and probably did in fact originate with the folk, who had more
of a reason for creating such stories to help instill hope in their
children. The fact that devices to record such oral storytellings were
not around at that time, or at least not in the possession of the
folk, is why Bottigheimer and the rest of us can not ever know the
true origins of the fairy tale. I find it much more believable that as
a form of escapism, inspiration, or entertainment, the folk started
coming up with these fantastical stories that they would tell to each
other and their children. These stories in one way or another got
retold to upper class people, who thought they could perhaps profit
from these stories and told them to others who committed them in
writing and sold them. Maybe I'm just more prone to believe a theory
where credit for the creation of fairy tales lies with the folk rather
than the upper class, I don't know, but I just know that I was not
fully convinced of Bottigheimer's views and feel that Bottigheimer
severely underestimated the importance of the oral tradition in
history.
What I would agree with more is that fairy tales really did not become
considered "art" until they hit the editing process. In one example,
we discussed how when Rapunzel was first told in 1812, a king comes
and gets Rapunzel pregnant, but since this version did not exactly
match with middle class values at the time, it was changed in the
1850s to a version where a prince asks for Rapunzel's hand in
marriage, sexual references are taken out (unless you count "laying
his hand in hers" as a sexual reference). Thus, the editing process
made it so the story of Rapunzel became popular with the mass audience
and became cherished today as one of our favorite fairy tales.
Also though an insignificant side note, I found it interesting that in
the whole "Donkeyskin" to "Catskin" to "Princess Catskin" transition
part, that in Goldsmith's version, the storyteller, Mr. Burchell, was
a man, and not an old grandmother, like we talked about in class.
-Zoe