Hello all,
I have been following the method of Vehtari et al. (2015) to compare models; specifically eqn. 24.
At the moment I am using this criterion by computing (for models A and B) a statistic:
L = (total(ELPD_A) - total(ELPD_B))/se(ELPD_A-ELPD_B)
If this number is much greater than 1, then we prefer model A.
First, is this method correct? For example, consider the below estimated ELPDs:
ELPD_A = (-100,-200,-200,...,-300,-400)
ELPD_B = (-100,-201,-201,...,-300,-400)
where "..." is the same for these two models, and let's say, of length 95 for both models. In this case, I think (again correct me if I'm wrong) that the se(ELPD_A-ELPD_B) =sqrt(100 x var(ELPD_A-ELPD_B)) ~ 1.4.
The difference in total ELPD ~ 2 > 1.4. Therefore we prefer model A. Is this logic correct?
So, if the above is right, this method appears to sometimes mean that we 'prefer' one model over another because a small number of estimated ELPD scores are very slightly higher.
Second, if we were to use ANOVA to compare the means between groups A and B, would this be ok? I have tried this and it seems to give a more reasonable answer that A and B are indistinguishable. Moreover, could this method be used across a number (greater than 2) of models?
Perhaps I am getting mixed up on two different viewpoints for comparing A and B: the first is purely in terms of point by point prediction, in which case A wins; the second is asking if there is any practical difference in the fits. Forgive the ignorance!
Best,
Ben