Not sure if I understand Andrew. Assume we have data y and some model for it. Let´s say we have two non-linear transforms f and g which we believe does some good to the data in terms of whatever (better variance structure or so) - but I am not sure if I want to model f(y) or g(y). Hence, in the Stan model I then write either
or
log_lik [i] <- normal_log (f(y[i]), pred[i], sigma);
to compare the model with f and g respectively (each model is executed independently from the other one).
To my understanding this is how it has to be done, but it feels certainly a bit odd to compare the point-wise log-density based on different data effectively. However, this is the best one can do in this case as such a model lacks a link function. Right? I am asking because in such a scenario, one does not calculate the loglikelihood on the original data, but rather the transformed one - this is the part which confused me in your response.
Best,
Sebastian