All -
I'm trying to reconcile the performance difference of two models. The first model is estimated on some (extending) window of data, at the end of which it produces a 1-year ahead forecast. For example, it estimates up to the end of 1975 then produces a forecast for 1976; the window then extends to include 1976, the model is re-fitted, and I generate a forecast for 1977. As the window size is increased, I get a series of true out-of-sample forecasts.
The second model is a time-varying parameter model estimated over the full data set. In each period within the sample, I generate a 1-year ahead forecast using that period's parameters. So the parameters for 1975 are used to forecast for 1976, and those for 1976 are used to forecast 1977.
The second model performs much better than the first, which is not surprising. My question is whether this is a valid comparison; in a time-varying-parameter model with a parameter theta[t] ~ normal(theta[t-1], sigma), are the values of theta[t-1] influenced at all by the data that come after? Another way of putting it is if i were to estimate the model to the end of 1975, would I have the same 1975 parameters in expectation as the case of estimating the model to today?
Cheers,
Jim