Who is resident in a country is obliged to start and end the fast with its people (www.islamqa.com)

[Mohammad Usman]

 

 

 

                                                     As-salaamu alaykum wa rahmat-Allaahi wa barakaatuhu

(Peace be upon you, and the mercy of Allaah and His blessings).

1.     who is resident in a country is obliged to start and end the fast with its people

http://www.islamqa.com/en/ref/106491  

We are from the land of the Two Holy Sanctuaries, and we work in the embassy in one of the Muslim Asian countries (Pakistan). Should we start and end the fast with the Kingdom or with the country in which we are living?

Praise be to Allaah.

What appears to be the case, based on the shar’i evidence, is that each person who is living in a country should start the fast with its people, because the Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) said: “The start of the fast is the day you start and the end of the fast is the day you end it, and the day of sacrifice is the day you offer your sacrifice.” And because it is known in Islam that we are commanded to be united and warned against division and differences, and because moon sightings may differ from one region to another, according to the consensus of the scholars, as Shaykh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyah (may Allah have mercy on him) said. Based on that, the embassy employee in Pakistan who starts fasting with the Pakistanis is closer to the right way than the one who starts his fast with Saudi, because of the distance between the two countries and the difference between moon sightings in them. Undoubtedly when the Muslims begin and end the fast when the moon is sighted or when 30 days of the month have been completed in any Muslim country, then they are closer to the apparent meaning of the shar’i evidence. But if that is not possible, then the closest is what we have mentioned above. And Allah, may He be glorified, is the source of strength. End quote.

Shaykh ‘Abd al-‘Azeez ibn Baaz (may Allah have mercy on him)

Majmoo’ Fataawa wa Maqaalaat Mutanawwi’ah (15/98, 99)

Shaykh Ibn Baaz was also asked: Sighting of the new moon of Ramadan and Shawwaal may be two days later in Pakistan than it is in Saudi. Should they fast with Saudi or with Pakistan?

He replied:

What seems to be the case to us is that you have to fast with the Muslims where you are, for two reasons. The first is that the Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) said: “The start of the fast is the day you start and the end of the fast is the day you end it, and the day of sacrifice is the day you offer your sacrifice.” (narrated by Abu Dawood and others with a hasan isnaad), so you and your brothers, so long as you are staying in Pakistan, should fast with them when they fast and break the fast with them when they break the fast, because you are included in these words and because the moon sighting varies from one place to another. Some of the scholars, including Ibn ‘Abbaas (may Allah be pleased with him) were of the view that the people of each land have their own moon sighting.

The other reason is that if you differ from the Muslims where you are with regard to the beginning and end of the fast, that will cause confusion, provoke questions and objections, and stir up disputes and arguments. Islam came to encourage agreement, harmony and cooperation in righteousness and piety, and to encourage people to avoid fighting and arguing, because Allah says (interpretation of the meaning): “And hold fast, all of you together, to the Rope of Allaah (i.e. this Qur’aan), and be not divided among yourselves” [Aal ‘Imraan 3:103].

And the Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) said, when he sent Mu’aadh and Abu Moosa to Yemen: “Give glad tidings and do not put people off, be in harmony and do not differ.” End quote.

Majmoo’ Fataawa wa Maqaalaat Mutanawwi’ah (15/103, 104).

    Islam Q&A

2. Is zakaah waived because of having to offer expiation (kafaarah)?

http://www.islamqa.com/en/ref/146373

If a person has to offer expiation for manslaughter or accidental killing (which is to free a slave), is zakaah on his wealth waived in return for freeing the slave or does he have to pay zakaah on all his wealth?.

Praise be to Allaah.

Firstly:

What is required of the one who possesses wealth that is subject to zakaah is to pay zakaah on it when one year has passed since he acquired it, even if he owes a debt, according to the more correct of the two scholarly opinions. Debt should not be deducted from the total amount of wealth on which he is paying zakaah, and it makes no difference whether the time paying the debt is deferred or it is due at present. Please see the answer the questions 22426 and 106434.

Secondly:

Once it is established that debt does not mean that zakaah is waived, then there is no difference between a debt that is owed to Allah, may He be exalted, such as zakaah, expiation and vows, and debts that are owed to other people.

It says in Mughni al-Muhtaaj (2/125): Debt does not mean that [zakaah] is waived, whether it is presently due or not, whether it is of the same type of wealth or not, or whether it is due to Allah, such as zakaah, expiation and vows, or not, according to the most correct opinion and because of the general meaning of the evidence for zakaah being obligatory. End quote.

And Allah knows best.

Website Created By: Sheikh Muhammed Salih Al-Munajjid

 

Source:  < www.islamqa.com >

 

Courtesy: This mail was shared with me by Brother Sheikh M Nasrullah < rd...@ruh.kanoosa.com  >, Riyadh-KSA

Brother-in-faith,

Mohammed Usman

Jeddah-Saudi Arabia

He whom death overtakes while he is engaged in acquiring knowledge with a view to reviving Islam with the help of it, there will be one degree between him and the Prophets in Paradise.’

< Al-Tirmidhi Hadith # 249; Narrated: Al-Hasan Al-Basri ® >