FragSinatra <
per...@not.com> wrote:
> I was discussing w/someone how F. D. Roosevelt denied a boatload of
> European Jews refugee status in the US and how he was never censured for
> sending these people back to Europe and certain death.
1) FDR was criticized, then and later.
2) In 1939, there was no solid evidence that Nazi Germany
was planning to kill all Jews they could reach, or even
large numbers of Jews. That the Nazis were viciously anti-semitic
was obvious - they bragged of it. But the Russian Empire had been
viciously anti-semitic (pogroms, the Black Hundreds) without
indulging in industrialized mass murder.
3) In 1939, the US was still mired in the Depression, with
unemployment well above 10%. Millions of people still lived
in shacks and hovels and migrant camps. Americans might
sympathize with the victims of fascism, but the US was in no
position to absorb hundreds of thousands or millions of refugees.
> But did F. D. R. know about the Holocaust?
Not in 1939. He was not psychic.
> When did the allies know about the Holocaust?
When did the Allies know that the Germans were murdering
thousands of people for ethnic and racial reasons?
There were definite reports of German massacres in 1939
from Poland.
When did the Allies know that German murders had reached
the hundreds of thousands? Sometime in 1941, I'd guess.
Allied awareness lagged well behind the actual scale;
the Allies had no systematic reporting on the ground,
and it was not an intelligence priority while there was
fighting to be done.
Also, there were memories of World War I, when exaggerated
reports of German atrocities gave rise to the impression
that all reports of German atrocities were "propaganda".
To this day, some people dismiss the German mass murder
of civilians in Belgium in 1914 as an invention.
The WW II allies did not want that to happen again.
When did the Allies know - truly understand - that the
Nazis had constructed industrial killing machinery,
had murdered millions of Jews and others, had tried
their worst to exterminate the Jews of Europe?
1945.
Because the crime was so enormous and so fantastic that
it defied belief without massive concrete evidence.
> I'm assuming the Germans weren't advertising the fact that they were committing
> genocide, but it must have been a difficult fact to conceal from all except
> the most stupid. After all, no one was coming back from the concentration
> camps were they?
The Holocaust was carried out deep in the fog of war,
under the shield of a totalitarian government, across
a whole continent that was in chaos. Millions of people
were displaced or relocated. Some were murdered. No one
but the Nazis themselves had a full picture of what they
were doing.
The ordinary man on the ground might know that some
people from his district had been deported to camps
and never returned. But he didn't know anything but
rumors about what was going on elsewhere. There wasn't
much cross-communication - and discussion of what crimes
the Nazis were up to was, ahem, inhibited.
> Did the allies, incl. Russia, at least make it a priority in their military
> advance across Europe to liberate the concentration camps ASAP?
No. By the time the camps were liberated, the war was
almost over anyway.
> Isn't there anything the allies could've done to stop
> or ameliorate the Holocaust?
Defeat Germany sooner. For one thing, it was not then
realized how (and why) the Nazis industrialized murder.
It was assumed (IMO reasonably) that the Nazis needed
no special facilities to kill; guns, or even clubs or
bayonets would suffice, as long as the Nazis had power.
As for threatening the perpetrators with post-war
punishment - few Germans were really convinced that
they would lose the war until 1943 - after most of
the killing had been done. Even then, most Germans
didn't consider defeat inevitable until 1945. Either
Hitler the wonderworker would work a wonder, or the
Allies would fall out with each other, or the mighty
Wehrmacht would force an armistice. In the meantime,
the business of the Reich would continue. It was hardly
possible to make the threat of future retribution sharp
enough to deter all potential murderers; some were
fanatical enough that the threat didn't matter. Others
were already guilty as possible; and one can only be
hanged once.
What else? _If_ the Allies had known in 1941 what the
Germans had already done, and what they intended for
1942 and 1943 - the Allies could have tried to warn
the potential victims. "Do not cooperate with the
Germans in _anything_. You cannot provoke them to do
worse than they already intend, which is to kill you.
Resist at all costs - you have nothing to lose."
Whether such warnings would be believed and acted on
is another question.
Note that in 1941, Stalin having convinced himself that
it was not in Germany's interest to attack the USSR that
year, he dismissed British warnings as a plot to get the
USSR embroiled with German for their own ends.
I could see Jewish community leaders thinking that such
warnings were intended to provoke guerrilla uprisings
for the benefit of the Allies, regardless of the cost
to Jews. Perhaps they might even consider it a Zionist
plot. (Most of the Jewish leaders in pre-WW-II eastern
Europe were anti-Zionist.)
So it's not easy.
--
| Nous sommes dans un pot de chambre, et nous y serons emmerdes. |
| -- General Auguste-Alexandre Ducrot at Sedan, 1870. |