On 03-Dec-21 10:11 PM, Fraser McNair wrote:
>> So why would Raoul rely on soldiery of the Reims archdiocese ("militibus
>> scilicet Remensis aecclesiae") if their home had not been menaced by
>> Ragenold? I doubt that this was haphazard.
>
> The church of Rheims owed the king military service. That's why they go to Burgundy; it's why, a little later on, they go to Eu under the command of Heribert of Vermandois. Flodoard is clear that Rognvald's raiders were going back and forth over the Oise; he doesn't say they got anywhere near Rheims.
>
>> Unless you consider that the
>> first Ragenold was of such major concern throughout Francia that men
>> from anywhere might be called on to chase him down and therefore he
>> might be expected to show up in sources with a broader or different
>> purview than Flodoard's written at Reims
>
> Yes, explicitly so: later in 925, Ralph issued the general call-out of the kingdom's army. This makes sense: at this point Rognvald is a threat to the kingdom's security who has menaced a fair chunk of the realm, including Artois, Neustria and Burgundy - but not the area around Rheims.
>
> As for expecting him to show up in other contemporary sources - it would be remarkable if he did, given Flodoard is the _only_ contemporary narrative from the West Frankish kingdom during these decades. In terms of near contemporary sources, though, he does actually appear in the _Miracula Sancti Benedicti_ of Aimoin of Fleury, where he seems to have left a memory as threatening as Flodoard shows him to have been at the time.
>
>> And Flodoard is so clear aout this that the Bernards have never been
>> conclusively sorted out...
>
> Precisely - they're not clear to _us_. My point is part of the reason they're not clear to us is because a contemporary reader would have known who Flodoard was talking about without him having to distinguish in the way he does between, e.g., the different Hughs all active at the same time.
So on the basis of Flodoard's using the form "Ragenold" you have assumed
that the Viking leader was indeed named Rognvald but that the evidently
younger man for whom he used the same name form was not? Your initial
claim was that Flodoard is perfectly clear to you and thus implicitly
should be also to me and others today.
>> The identification of Ragenold the raider chief with Renaud the count
>> was made by Melleville before Moranvillé. You are arguing in an
>> unbecomingly egocentric circle in asserting that Flodoard clearly meant
>> just what you take him to mean and nothing else.
>
> Speaking of unbecoming, let's leave out the personal attacks. There are plenty of good, scholarly reasons not to be convinced by this weak, weak identification.
It was an observation directly on the logic of your presentation of the
issue at hand, not a personal attack - criticism can't be deflected that
easily. Saying "there are plenty [a loaded word here for several] of
good scholarly reasons not to be convinced" of something is much more
reasonable in this context than asserting as you did yesterday that
"Beyond the fact they've got a version of the same name, there really is
no reason whatsoever to connect the Viking leader Rognvald with Ragenold
of Roucy". Not being convinced by a weak (once will do in rational
debate) case and finding no reason whatsoever are somewhat different
positions. I find the case for making Flodoard's two Ragenolds into one
person to be weak, but it is still widely current and appealing to the
authority of "modern scholarship" against "nineteenth-century
historians" (for some of whom Flodoard obviously wasn't as clear as you
seem to think) is not helpful to SGM readers.
The case for two distinct Ragenolds was put forward by Henri de Roussen
de Florival in his 1907 École nationale des chartes thesis, but this is
not readily accessible. However, having lived in the nineteenth century
may not be a disqualification for understanding Flodoard or for taking
careful note of chronology.
>> Interestingly, Flodoard himself used the form Rainaldus for an earlier
>> count of this name, plainly a Frank, who had correspondence with
>> archbishop Hincmar (between 845 & 882) about property of the Reims
>> archdiocese that had been recovered from plunderers, see here (lines
>> 12-13):
https://www.dmgh.de/mgh_ss_36/index.htm#page/343/mode/1up.
>>
>> According to the editor (note 90) nothing more is known about this count.
>
> That's not strictly accurate. This part of Flodoard's _Historia Remensis Ecclesiae_ is a summary of a letter of Archbishop Hincmar, and so 'Rainaldus' is coming straight from the source (a quick check of Hincmar's work does indeed show that he normally uses 'Rain-' for that particular radical, as in his letter to Bishop Hildebold of Soissons or his Opuscules concerning Hincmar of Laon). Flodoard seems to do this with his orthography in the _Historia_ - so, for instance, the name 'Adalgar' is 'Adalgarius' when he's copying from Archbishop Hincmar's letters and 'Adalgerius' when copying from Archbishop Fulk's.
Again, I fail to see how your opinion - however strongly it may be held
- can render my straightforward statement "not strictly accurate".
Flodoard wrote his history, not Hincmar. You and I, along with everyone
else, have no way of knowing exactly what orthography was used in
Hincmar's letter or even who had copied it in the version seen by
Flodoard (that was presumably not an autograph retrieved from the
recipient). My point was that the form "Rainaldus" was commonly used in
the mid-10th century, and Flodoard wrote his history in 948. If he had
an idiosyncratic preference for "Ragenold/Ragenald" for every Frankish
occurrence and was clear to his contemporaries (as if he thought of
himself as a journalist telling them more about people they already knew
without a thought for posterity), who could he not read "Rainaldo" and
turn this into "Ragenoldo"? Hincmar was not holy writ.
> However, bringing in the _Historia_ isn't relevant to what Flodoard does in the _Annals_, which is the text under discussion. There, he uses 'Ragen-' or 'Ragin-' for that particular radical (thus, 'Ragenarius', 'Ragenardus') in every case. With that in mind, within his annals he makes relevant distinctions between people who could be confused (e.g. 939, where he does distinguish between 'Hugh son of Richard', 'Hugh son of Robert', and 'Hugh the Cisalpine' because it's important to know which Hugh is which), and does not bother doing so between people whom none of his readers would confuse (so, for instance, he does not distinguish between 'Ralph bishop of Laon' [meaning Ralph I] and 'Ralph bishop of Laon' [meaning Ralph II]; or any of the different Pope Johns).
He certainly made such a distinction with the name Charles, adding
Constantine to distinguish one who is never elsewhere called by that
name - and yet "modern scholarship" has made a genealogical dog's
breakfast out of this.
>> Reims of course had long been a favoured target of Vikings, and Hincmar
>> died in 882 while taking refuge from an attack on the city. Louis IV
>> while residing there in 945 raised a force of Normans to ravage
>> Vermandois, so they can't have been based too far away at that time.
>
> Rheims had indeed been under attack from Vikings in the 880s, and that's about it. Not exactly a 'favoured target' for Northman fleets. As for Louis' Northman army in 945, at the time he had just taken control of Rouen, and was actively fighting Hugh the Great over which of them got to rule (what later became) Normandy. These particular Northmen come from his newly acquired Rouennais supporters and have no bearing on Ragenold's background.
>
Attacks in February 880, November 882 and the winter of 886-887 seem to
me evidence for interest in Reims that can be termed longstanding from
the perspective of the third decade in the next century. Where in the
course of four words ("collecto secum Nortmannorum exercitu") does
Flodoard clearly specify that this force used by Louis against
Vermandois had come across from Rouen?
> Let's bring this back to first principles. Being as even-handed as possible, here is the evidence for the Viking raider Rognvald being the same as Ragenold of Roucy:
>
> 1) They have the same name.
> 2) Flodoard does not explicitly say that they are different people.
>
> Against the identification:
>
> 1) They lived decades apart.
> 2) They operated in different areas of the kingdom.
> 3) No source says they are the same person. This is especially significant because:
> 4) Flodoard had a chip on his shoulder about Normans - thus, the Romance-speaking, Christian, born-in-Gaul Counts of Rouen William Longsword and Richard the Fearless are always identified as 'Northmen' - but Ragenold isn't.
>
> Quite frankly, points 3) and 4) against seems redundant when comparing points 1) and 2) against with point 1) for. Tenth-century figures can be arbitrarily combined or separated at leisure, but to do so on such a flimsy basis adds nothing useful or evidentially based to our understanding of the period.
Your understanding of Flodoard evidently does not lead to a full
understanding of my point in this exchange. I am not arguing for the
identification of the 920s Ragenold with the 940s namesake, but just
acknowledging that this is still a current and (although barely) tenable
view. For instance, interested SGM readers are likely to find it
acknowledged (in a slightly more positive way than I would put it) in
the Henry Project page for Renaud of Roucy here:
https://fasg.org/projects/henryproject/data/ragen000.htm ("This
identification is possible, but uncertain.") I would be more inclined to
say "not impossible, but highly implausible".
However, my point in the context of your "no reason whatsoever to
connect the Viking leader Rognvald with Ragenold of Roucy" is to
distinguish between identifying two people as one man and connecting
them to each other.
Peter Stewart