Interestingly, Empress Eugénie of France (1870-1920), wife of the Emperor,
Napoleon III (1808-1873), was the daughter of Don Cipriano de Palafox y
Portocarrero (1785-1839, 17th Marquis of Moya, which presumably means that
she was part Jewish.
http://www.circulodeopinion.com/II_premio_A_pardo.htm#TERCERO1
'Don Andrés de Cabrera, hijo de Pedro López de Madrid o Xibaja y de doña
María Alonso de Cabrera, nació en Cuenca en 1430, siendo bautizado en la
parroquia de San Miguel. Sobre él pesó la sombra de su ascendencia conversa;
sabrás que no era lo mismo ser cristiano nuevo que viejo en aquellos
tiempos. Andrés y su hermano Pedro fueron introducidos en la corte por Juan
Pacheco, marqués de Villena, su más eterno rival por el dominio de la ciudad
de Segovia.'
This says that he was a 'new Christian' (cristiano nuevo').
"Graham Milne" <grahamm...@btinternet.com> wrote in message
news:24OdnXItNtk4QDPR...@bt.com...
Interestingly, Empress Eugénie of France (1870–1920), wife of the
As you said, "part" Jewish...minimal (to the point of being virtually
non existent), as is the case with ALL the titled nobility in Spain
(and, I dare say, most Spaniards, noble or not). Statistically is
impossible not to have any Jewish or Muslim (be it Arab or otherwise)
ancestry if you are of Spanish stock. For almost 800 years the three
communities lived together (and intermingled without it being a major
cause for any scandal) and it wasn't until the mid to late XIV century
that problems began.
However, going to your specific question, all the siblings (and half-
brothers) of Andrés de Cabrera are known, are there is no Violante
among them--besides, the chronology points to an earlier generation.
You must bear in mind that conversos usually adopted the last names of
their godparents or the name of city/place where they came from.
That's the reason why so many Jewish families have such names as
Toledo, Rojas, Guzmán, Mendoza, Córdoba, Ayala, Luna, Carvajal, etc.,
all of whom, at some point in time, intermarried with "cristiano
viejo" families.
Regarding the first marqués de Moya's pedigree much has been said, yet
there is no solid proof that his ancestry was converso, just
suspicions. The López de Madrid or Gibaja are documented from the mid
XIV century on and they always appear as "hijodalgos" in Cuenca with
no mention of any converso ancestry. If there is any in this pedigree
it has to come through Leonor López de Cetina, about whom little is
known (she was Andres' paternal grandmother). Andres' mother María
Alonso de Cabrera was, on her paternal side, most probably from
peasant stock and on her maternal side she belonged to the lower ranks
of the nobility.
Regards,
JL
Many thanks for your reply. The Jewish Encyclopedia must have had a
sound reason for referring to Don Abraham Senior as a close realtive
of Andres de Cabrera. Since Violante was apparently not Andres' sister
perhaps she was his aunt or a close cousin. It would be quite a
coincidence if Don Arbaham was a close relative but NOT through his
wife bearing the name de Cabrera.
> As you said, "part" Jewish...minimal (to the point of being virtually
> non existent), as is the case with ALL the titled nobility in Spain
> (and, I dare say, most Spaniards, noble or not). Statistically is
> impossible not to have any Jewish or Muslim (be it Arab or otherwise)
> ancestry if you are of Spanish stock. For almost 800 years the three
> communities lived together (and intermingled without it being a major
> cause for any scandal) and it wasn't until the mid to late XIV century
> that problems began.
FWIW, a recent genetic analysis shows the Spanish population to be
predominantly an equal admixture of Northern and Southern European
genetics, slightly more south than north. They also have about 8%
West Asian type (typical in the Caucasus), and another 8% being
roughly equal amounts of Semitic, Arab (slightly less), Moor (slightly
more), and what they call Druze - typical of Lebanon's Druze
population. Of these, the West Asian type seems odd - does this
represent something picked up by the Visigoths on their way to Spain?
Or represent slave populations brought in by the Arabs (but it is
awfully high). It does not represent a sometimes-hypothesized Basque/
Caucasus population - French Basques have none of this. The Druze may
represent either Arab slave populations or Phoenicians.
On a more historical level, essentially the entire (small) Jewish
population under the Visigoths were absorbed into the Visigoth noble
classes, such that most of the late-period Visigoths were 'part-
Jewish' and these presumably served as the ancestors of the later
nobility in Reconquest and Mozarab Iberia, with the latter presumably
picking up additional later influx. (Which influx has been overstated
by some in the 'everybody's a Jew' camp, such as Roth - for one
family, he argues that one of the Toledo families was Jewish because
they had a daughter who married another family that is claimed to be
Jewish, as if such noble families would not have married had they not
both had Jewish blood.)
As always, it is not a question of claims, or probabilities, but of
proof.
taf
> Of these, the West Asian type seems odd - does this
> represent something picked up by the Visigoths on their way to Spain?
> Or represent slave populations brought in by the Arabs (but it is
> awfully high). It does not represent a sometimes-hypothesized Basque/
> Caucasus population - French Basques have none of this. The Druze may
> represent either Arab slave populations or Phoenicians.
>
You forgot the "Greeks" who conquered part of Spain in Merovingian times.
Soldiers from the Byzantine Empire.
You remember we recently had a thread about the fate of that little prince
taken to Constantinople and held there for at least a little.
I assumed Greeks would be of the 'Southern European' type, along with
Romans and any Etruscans they may have brought with them.
taf