chas v'shalom
Bob Krovetz
My understanding is that it means "G-d forbid", but that it
literally means "pity and peace". When was it first used?
Thanks,
Bob
chr...@vmsa.technion.ac.il
> Does anyone know the origin of the expression "chas v'shalom"?
> My understanding is that it means "G-d forbid", but that it
> literally means "pity and peace". When was it first used?
No one seems to have taken up this extremely interesting question
in the week since it was posted. My own failure to respond earlier
is the result of my modem at home (where I ordinarily read scj and
where I keep the relevent reference books) having been struck by
lighting, presumably in response of some of my irreverent posts (:-).
The mishnaic expression "Has v'shalom" is ordinarily assumed to be
synonymous with the biblical "Halila" and the more modern combination
"Has v'Halila", all being translated as `God forbid!". One would
therefore interpret "Has v'shalom" as being shorthand for: `(God) pity
(us) and (give us) peace'. I consider this to be folk etymology, and
will try to show by a textual reading of the sources that the origin of
the expression is quite different, and that God has no part in it at all.
Readers who are inclined to find such a `God'less interpretation
objectionable are advised to skip the rest of this post (:-).
Let us begin with "Halila".
Whenever it appears in the Tanach, it is translated `far be it'.
The more knowledgeable philologists on the net are invited to comment
on the validity of the talmudic "drash" as to its origin,
(Avoda Zara 4b: "Hulin hu me'asot kadavar hazeh", meaning `It would
be a profanation to do this' ). This "drash" appears in connection with
Abraham's plea (see 1. below) to save Sodom from destruction, and again
worded a bit differently (Berachot 32a) in connection with Moses'
pleading with God not to destroy Israel after the incident of the
golden calf.
One way or other, "Halila l'cha" implies `It would be wrong for you to do
it, so please don't.'
1. Abraham to God (Gen. 18,25): Far be it from You ... to slay the righteous
with the wicked.
2. Jonathan to David (1st Samuel 20,9): Far be it from you [to suspect me
of ill will towards you].
When used relexively as "Halila li", it clearly implies `It would be wrong
for me to do it, so I won't.'
3. Joseph to his brothers (Gen 44,17): Far be it from me [to imprison all
of you].
4. Samuel to the people (1st Samuel 12,23): Far be it from me [that I
will cease to pray for you].
Sometimes, however, it is used as a denial of past wrongdoing, as in
5. Joseph's brothers to his overseer (Gen 44,7): Far be it from us
[to have stolen Joseph's goblet].
6. Avimelech to Saul (1st Samuel 22,15) ...be it far from me [to have
knowingly behaved treasonously].
Closely related to the last is its use as an expression of disbelief that
someone who is above suspicion can be suspected of wrongdoing.
7. Elihu to Job (Job 34,10) Far be it from God that he should do wickedness.
By the time of the Mishna, "Halila" disappears, to be replaced by
"Has v'shalom", but almost invariably in the context of denial of past
misbehaviour. Thus, related to examples 5.and 6. above,
8. A woman whose pious husband died young (Shabbat 14a): Far be it (from him)
to have put a finger on me during my menstrual period [so why was he
punished?].
When the reference is not to an anonymous scholar but to a revered sage,
a historical figure, an angel - or even God Himself, the meaning shifts to
that of example 7, and is similar to the Aramaic "la salka da'atach",
meaning `Don't let it enter your mind'.
9. R Yehuda about R Akavia ben Mehalalel (Eduyot Ch. 5, Mishna 6): Far be it
from us [to believe] that R Akavia was excommunicated.
10. R Shim'on ben Gamaliel about Moses (Jerus. Nedarim Ch. 3, Halacha 14):
Far be it from us [to believe] that the angel intended to kill Moses [for
postponing the circumcision of his son].
11. R Akiva in connection with a prophet who had become a false prophet
(Sanhedrin 90a): Far be it from us [to believe] that God would
stop the [motion of] sun for the benefit of transgressors against his will.
Occasionally "Has v'shalom" is used in a temporary expression of doubt,
either of another or of oneself, in the sense of `may it not be true'.
12. R Akiva with reference to his teacher R Eliezer (Sanhedrin 101a):
I said [to myself] perhaps - "Has v'shalom" - the master had already
received his reward [in this world rather than the next].
13. (Berachot 28a) R Gamaliel's mind was troubled, and he said [to himself]
perhaps - "Has v'shalom" - I have diminished learning in Israel [by
limiting the number of students].
In all of these cases the reference is to the past. It is too late for
God to `forbid' anything, so why was God's pity brought into it?
Moreover, Whom is He supposed to pity? The maligner? The maligned
righteous person? Himself?!
So where do the words "Has v'shalom" come from?
Evidently "Has" here does not mean `pity'. In mishnaic Hebrew it is used
more loosely, sometimes `spare', `protect', `uphold' or `relent'.
Several examples:
14. (Shabbat Ch. 2, Mishna 5) He who extiguishes the candle in order
to spare the candle, spare the oil or spare the wick...
15. ('Erechin Ch. 8, Mishna 4) All the more is a man required to preserve
his property.
16. (Jerus. Ketubot Ch. 11, Halacha 3) Just as a man must uphold
the honor of his widow, he must uphold the honor of his divorcee.
With this in mind, it appears that "Has v'shalom" is not addressed to
God, but to the person casting the unjustified aspersions and should be
undestood as `Relent and [hold your] peace', or simply `Don't say that!.'
I believe "Has v'shalom" come to be translated `God forbid! much later.
In the middle ages "Halila" made a comeback, occasionally doubled to
"Halila halila", and was sometimes used in the sense of 9.-11. above,
17. Ibn Ezra (on Ex. 31,18) "Halila halila" that Aaron would have made
an idol.
but also in a new sense, as a disclaimer of future wrongdoing:
18. Ibn Ezra (on Ex. 20,1) "Halila halila" that I would [ever] say that the
sages did not speak truly."
By this time too, the Aramaic expression "RaHmana litzlan", literally
`the merciful [God] preserve us', was coming into general use in parallel
with both "Halila" and "Has v'shalom".
In the Talmud it had been used in a narrower sense:
19. R Hanina to R Il'ai (Shabbat 84b): "RaHmana litzlan" from [adopting]
an opinion such as yours.
Eventually "RaHmana litzlan" found its way back from Aramaic into
Hebrew. Thus, from the 18th Century poet and kabbalist, R Moshe Haim
Luzzato:
20: (Layesharim Tehilah, 3): "haraHaman yatzilenu", what is this storm
coming from the South?".
By then and presumably well before, "RaHmana litzlan", "Halila", and
"Has v'shalom" were being used interchangeably in the sense of "God forbid".
So much so that R Y. Barceloni (can someone identify him for me?) apparently
felt uncomfortable about addressing God in the present or past indicative,
and converted "has" to the imperative "hus":
21.( R Y. Barceloni, Hilchot Sefer Torah 31, cited in Ben Yehuda's
Thesaurus): ...so that we may not - "Hus v'shalom" - transgress against
that which is written.
I have tried to demonstrate in this post that Hebrew is a living, constantly
changing language, and to suggest - ever so gently by analogy - that the same
can be said of Jewish culture in general.
If anyone is prepared to continue this thread, "tavo 'alav ha'bracha".
Amitai
*---------------------------------------------------------------*
| E.A. Halevi, Department of Chemistry, Technion - I.I.T. |
| "Mipnei seiva takum, vehadarta pnei zaken" - Leviticus 19, 32 |
*---------------------------------------------------------------*
>
> Thanks,
> Bob
>
> kro...@cs.umass.edu
>
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