For two commuting three-vectors A and B, the cross product
AxB = -BxA
But what if A and B are non-commuting. Say they are the spin oprator S
and the angular momentum operator L.
Might it be that LxS <> -SxL in this case?
Or, would the related commutators:
[L,S]+[S,L]=0
cause us to have LxS = -SxL here as well?
Thanks.
Jay.
____________________________
Jay R. Yablon
Email: jya...@nycap.rr.com
co-moderator: sci.physics.foundations
Weblog: http://jayryablon.wordpress.com/
Web Site: http://home.nycap.rr.com/jry/FermionMass.htm
What is a "commuting" 3 vector? A three vector is an ordered triplet of
3 real numbers. The property of commutation refers to the -operator-,
not the operands.
>
> AxB = -BxA
>
> But what if A and B are non-commuting. Say they are the spin oprator S
> and the angular momentum operator L.
Say what? Look at the definition of X in terms of the vector components
of the vectors being multiplied by the operator X.
AxB = -BxA follows directly from the definition.
Bob Kolker
For an example consider the Dirac gamma matrices, which are often
considered loosely as a 4-vector. More strictly the dot product of the
gamma matrices with a vector is invariant under coordinate
transformation.
Regards
--
Charles Francis
moderator sci.physics.foundations.
charles (dot) e (dot) h (dot) francis (at) googlemail.com (remove spaces and
braces)
When A and B are parallel, AxB = BxA = 0.
Ken
Hi Jay, have a glance at this.
I'll use I,J,K as unit Cartesian Vectors.
I x J x J x J x J = I
(......K...-I.._K....I )
where the values in (..) are the results.
Allow me to write,
I = I x J^4 == I x J^exp(x4).
I prefer the latter, so the vector product is clearly
notated within the exponent.
Using "f" as a function.
A view of d^4 f / d^4 of (sin f) = sin f,
with each d/df (sin f) == the operation " x J ",
rotates 90.
Recall we can use fractional derivatives,
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fractional_calculus
to enable, when N=4,
df^N (sin f) /df^N = sin f,
to depart from N being a whole number.
Using the above, employs 1,2,3,4 in the rotations
to produce a 360 degree in place of the 2 pi rads,
to place the rotations onto a Calculus Field.
IOW's I use N=4 in place of 2 pi radians.
Regards
Ken S. Tucker
On Apr 19, 2:34 pm, "Ken S. Tucker" <dynam...@vianet.on.ca> wrote:
...
Hi Jay, have a glance at this.
I'll use I,J,K as unit Cartesian Vectors.
I x J x J x J x J = I
(......K...-I...-K....I )
where the values in (..) are the running results
provided for clarity.
Allow me to write,
I = I x J^4 == I x J^(x4).
I prefer the latter, so the vector product is clearly
notated within the exponent.
Using "f" as a function.
A view of d^4 (sin f) / df^4 = sin f,
with each d/df (sin f) == the operation " x J ",
rotates 90.
Recall we can use fractional derivatives,
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fractional_calculus
to enable, when N=4,
df^N (sin f) /df^N = sin f,
to depart from N being a whole number, with
the result that a variation from N=4 will not
yeild sin f. For example N=2 yeilds,
df^N (sin f) /df^N = -sin f ...etc.
> Using the above, employs 1,2,3,4 in the rotations
> to produce a 360 degree in place of the 2 pi rads,
> to place the rotations onto a Calculus Field.
> IOW's I use N=4 in place of 2 pi radians.
An application addendum:
You may recall I used an aircraft (a/c) to describe spin.
Anyway I Yawed once (360, around the z-axis) and
Rolled the a/c twice (720, around the y-axis), while
doing so to return the a/c back to it's original orientation.
But I specified the Pitch (around the x-axis) would be
zero.
Let me define one cycle as
I = I x J^(x4),
to use J^(x4) to spin "I" 360.
Then using frequency as a cycle per time,
w2 = J^(x4/t) = I cycle / time.
equivalent of 1 cycle of Roll using the a/c.
The Yaw rate has be designated as 1/2 the
Roll rate,
w3 = K^(x2/t) = 1/2 cycle / time,
or Yawed in the opposite direction,
w3 = K^(-x2/t) = -1/2 cycle / time.
Applying the above to unit vector "I" gives,
Pitch rate = w1 = I x J^(x4/t) x K^(-x2/t) = I^(x2/t) = -I /t
= -1/2 cycle/time around x,
(A complete cycle would have returned "I" back to
"I", so a 1/2 cycle produces the "-I" unit X vector),
by using the exponential rule within cross products,
x4/t - x2/t = x2/t while using that in the J x K above.
I intend to produce concrete conclusions, if and
when that notation makes reportable sense.
Regards
Ken S. Tucker
"Aage Andersen (REMOVE)" <a...@email.dk> wrote in message
news:480d2434$0$2086$edfa...@dtext02.news.tele.dk...
>
> "Jay R. Yablon" >> Quick question:
>>>
>>> For two commuting three-vectors A and B, the cross product
>>>
>>> AxB = -BxA.
>>>
>>> But what if A and B are non-commuting.
> > I think I answered my own question, and the answer is:
>>
>
>> AxB = -BxA, always.
>
> Then, how do you explain the formula for angular momentum?
>
> M x M = i hbar M in quantum mechanics
> M x M = 0 in classical mechanic
>
> Aage
>
>
>
1) I think you are right, and have swung back to my original view of
the problem. Let's start with
A X B
Now, with e_ijk being the Levi-Civita tensor and i-1,2,3, I believe we
may define:
(A X B)_i = e_ijk A_j B_k (1)
This means that if we just rename A <---> B, and then rename and
transpose indexes, we may write:
(B X A)_i = e_ijk B_j A_k = e_ikj B_k A_j = -e_ijk B_k A_j (2)
Then, we add (1) and (2) to obtain the commutator:
(A X B)_i + (B X A)_i = e_ijk [A_j, B_k] (3)
Whether A x B + B x A = 0 then depends on the properties of the
commutator, and this is *not necessarily* zero. One place it is not
zero, is for M x M = i hbar M, as you point out.
2) The specific problem I have been considering which got me started on
this thread, is as regards the canonical commutation relationship.
Here:
[x, p] = i hbar.
This is not a cross product per se. But, if one considers the cross
product:
L X S
where L is the angular momentum operator and S is the intrinsic spin
operator, and if:
L = x X p
where x and p are position and momentum operators (position x lowercase,
versus cross X uppercase), then:
L X S + S X L
has some intriguing properties because there is an implied commutation
of x and p embedded in this. When I first started the thread, I was
trying to ascertain what the canonical commutation relationship did to
this cross product, and whether it is or is not equal to zero.
What I have found after careful calculation is that:
L X S = (x X p) X S = i hbar S - x(p dot S) - p(x dot S) (4)
and that:
S X L = S X (x X P) = i hbar S +(S dot p)x + (S dot x)p (5)
Five points here:
a) The cross product picks up an extra i hbar S term that does not
appear in the usual expression for a triple cross product.
b) The i hbar S arises directly from [x, p] = i hbar, and so is solely
of quantum mechanical origin.
c) If one isolates i hbar S from all the other terms, then
i hbar S = L X S + x(p dot S) - p(x dot S) (6)
is, effectively, a "decomposition" of the spin operator into terms
involving x, p and itself.
d) Adding (4) and (5) as we did above with (1) and (2), it may look like
L X S + S X L <> 0, but in fact, L X S + S X L = 0.
To see this, add (4) and (5) to get:
L X S + S X L
= 2 i hbar S {-x(p dot S)+(S dot p)x} {-p(x dot S)+(S dot x)p}=0
Each of the terms in {} brackets turn out, via [x, p] = i hbar, to be
equal to
-x(p dot S)+(S dot p)x = -i hbar S
-p(x dot S)+(S dot x)p = -i hbar S
So at least in this case, L X S = - S X L, *despite the extra i hbar S
term* which was what I was specifically grappling with when I started
the thread.
e) The magnetic moment operator is just
-(e/m) gamma^0 i (hbar/2) S
see Ohanian's article at
http://jayryablon.files.wordpress.com/2008/04/ohanian-what-is-spin.pdf
which I have discussed in some other threads and which is a very
fundamental and very under-recognized article which clarifies some
difficult boundaries between classical and quantum theory and gives
classical theory more explanatory power over "non-classical, two-valued"
spin than it was previously understood to have. (Sorry Pauli ;-)
This means via (6), that one can also decompose the magnetic moment
operator into terms that involve x and p and the Heisenberg
relationships. I am at present studying Robertson-Schroedinger and
wondering if there is some way to use this to provide an alternate
explanation, particularly of the *anomalous* magnetic moment, based on
the Heisenberg *inequality* that would set 2 to be, not the gyromagnetic
ratio, but the *lower boundary* of this ratio, with the Schwinger
expansion telling us the degree to which delta x delta p exceeds hbar
/2, based on the Heisenberg inequality:
delta x delta p >= hbar / 2.
That should give an idea what I am wrestling with at the moment and how
this cross product question arose along the way.
Thanks,
Jay.