On Feb 2, 1:45 pm, "G. A. Edgar" <ed...@math.ohio-state.edu.invalid>
wrote:
> In article
> <
7952acdf-3eca-49df-a9cb-0dd31109b...@hb4g2000vbb.googlegroups.com>,
I agree that the connected case is more interesting.
However, I'm probably making a mistake but I don't see how your remark
leads automatically to a family of counterexamples.
For example, suppose G1 and G2 are groups with the same finite order
but G1 is abelian and G2 is nonabelian.
Then, when considering the group structures alone, the product of the
line with G1 is abelian but the product of the line with G2 is
nonabelian.
So we don't get a counter-example.
Paul Epstein