On Tuesday, 21 September 2021 at 15:12:17 UTC+3,
zelos...@gmail.com wrote:
> >It does.
>
> It doesn't because {1,2,3,4,5,...} is an infinite subset of N
No, moron, no. {1,2,3,4,5,...} is N according to mainstream doctrine. "Infinite subset" is hand waving art. LMAO.
> >"A set is said to be countable, if you can make a list of its members. By a list we mean that you can find a first member, a second one, and so on, and eventually assign to each member an integer of its own, perhaps going on forever."
> A colloquial way to say a bijection with a subset of N
Again, no. Saying "...a bijection with N or a subset of N" is an "easy to memorise" way for naive idiot sycophants like you.
> >That definition is CORRECT. What it's telling you, crank from Oops-Allah (Uppsala uni), is that a set is countable if its members can be indexed.
> All sets can be indexed by themselves, but not all sets are countable.
No idiot, no. First of all, the members of a given set must be distinct and therefore identifiable.
> >I do not recognise or accept infinity because unlike you, my brain is not infected with syphilis. Your definition leaves out the possibility of an infinite set. Either way, the definition is SHIT because nothing Cantor did is worth and attention.
> It doesn't because again, {1,2,3,4,5,...} is an infinite subset of N so it works.
Oops-Allah! LMAO.
> >FALSE. The fact that neither you or your fellow crank Klyver can show this means you have no refutation.
> Correct, as I showed, any set can be an index set by the definition of index set.
You've never shown anything besides the fact that you are an utter idiot. Sadly, you continue to display your stupidity for the whole world to see.
>
> I can easily index R with R
> f(r)=r_r=r
LMAO. Whatever you scribbled there will not convince anyone unless they are delusional morons like you.
>
> Is an indexing of R with R, not very interesting but it is.
It's nothing of the sort. f(r)=r_r is a mapping where r is assumed to be some magnitude, but there is no evidence that r is in fact a number of any kind. I could write f(magnitude) = some_magnitude, but it would not prove anything about magnitude or some_magnitude.
> >For any set to index itself, its members must be distinct. That is the first property one learns about sets. You cannot say
> All members in a set are distinct. Including in R
LMAO. Elements are only distinct if you can NAME them systematically. So far, you haven't even gotten close, you silly crank!
> >"A <<real set>> is said to be countable, if you can make a list of its members. By a list we mean that you can find a first member, a second one, and so on, and eventually assign to each member an integer of its own, perhaps going on forever."
> >So have at it crank! Start with 0 and show me how you would systematically name a first, second and third member, etc.
> if I can show it is in bijection to a subset of N it suffices
BOOM! You can't show that R is in a bijection with N, you stupid Swede ape! That would be in contradiction of one of your core beliefs: the set of real numbers is uncountable.
Man, you're a moron deluxe! ROFLMAO.
>
> for N, Q and Z I can hence they are all countable.
A fallacy that's called "refutation that is not a refutation".
Hint: I was referring to the imaginary set of "real numbers". Of course, N, Q and Z are countable, because they are indexable.