(This is based on a posting yesterday at MSE:
http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1487910/why-cant-we-use-implication-for-the-existential-quantifier/1489952#1489952 )
Let A = the set of apples. Let D = the set of things that are delicious
Using a universal quantifier, we can say:
For all x, x in A implies x in D, i.e. all apples are delicious.
Using an existential quantifier, we can say:
There exists x such that x in A and x in D, i.e. some apples are delicious.
Essentially, the OP wanted to know why this could not also be written as an implication:
There exists x such that x in A IMPLIES x in D.
Equivalently, this could be written:
There exists x such that x not in A or x in D.
For a given x, either of the following possibilities would satisfy this condition:
1. x in A and x in D, i.e. some apples are delicious (as above)
2. x not in A and x in D, i.e. some non-apples are delicious
3. x not in A and x not D, i.e. some non-apples are not delicious
So, the implication allows for more possibilities than the conjunction.
Furthermore, the implication following the existential quantifier as here is a set-theoretic variation of the so-called Drinker's Paradox (see my blog). For ANY set A and ANY proposition P, we can prove using ordinary set theory and the rules of logic that:
There exists x such that x in A implies P. (Ex:[x in A => P])
So, to avoid confusion, we should probably try to avoid altogether such constructs in mathematics.
Dan
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