I need help with the following:
Prove that if a+b+c=PI, we have:
cos^2(a)+cos^2(b)+cos^2(c)+2*cos(a)*cos(b)*cos(c) = 1
I really don't know how to do it :), after 3 hours of trying to find it...
Greetings,
Alain
Alain Fontaine wrote in a message to All:
AF> I need help with the following:
AF> Prove that if a+b+c=PI, we have:
AF> cos^2(a)+cos^2(b)+cos^2(c)+2*cos(a)*cos(b)*cos(c) = 1
AF> I really don't know how to do it :), after 3 hours of trying
AF> to find it...
Ok, after a coffee pause, I found it in 10 minutes :)))) Thanks for reading
anyway. I just had to use the cos(a)*cos(b) stuff twice, et voila.
Greetings,
Alain