http://rationalargumentator.com/issue195/godel.html
Excerpt:
"... John von Neumann [...] held the view that 'Peano
Arithmetic already encompasses all that can be done
finitistically,'"
and
"According to Feferman, most mathematicians today
agree with von Neumann."
True? Has it been proven one way or the other?
Opinions, comments, etc. appreciated.
Thanks,
Marshall
As far as I can tell (I'd welcome any needed correction or
refinement), commonly, PRA is identified with finitistic mathematics,
so, since first order PA encompasses PRA, a fortiori, PA encompasses
finitistic mathematics.
But since 'finitistic' is an informal notion, I don't see how one
would prove (in a formal sense) things about it; though, of course,
one may give various arguments and reasons for adopting different
views of what is or is not finitistic. No?
MoeBlee
I think that what MoeBlee says is correct.
This is an interesting discussion:
http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/hilbert-program/
and the works of mentioned logicians referenced there.
Best,
Sergei Tropanets