Seneca/Pindar comparison
Greg Marconi
but merely seeking assistance with a discussion between a
non-classical literature person (me), and a friend who is a mythology
professor.
During a recent conversation, he questioned me about the differences
or similarities I saw between the writing styles of Pindar and Seneca.
While I've read the Odes, and many of Seneca's works, huge
differences, or similarities for that matter, don't readily jump out
at me. I went back and pulled my books out and re-read some of them
with this comparison in mind, but I don't pick up a whole lot. On
their face, Seneca seems a more graphic, descriptive writer, but I
wonder if that has to do with the more modern time that he wrote in?
Side by side, their plays seem very similar, and the differences or
similarities subtle, if any. I must say, I'm reading the translations
however.
Can anyone just point out some areas that I should be paying closer
attention to? Are there glaring similarities or differences that I'm
just not seeing? Any rough pointers/advice would be greatly
appreciated.
SR
Caelius
wrote:
>Let me start by saying that I am not looking for help with a paper,
>but merely seeking assistance with a discussion between a
>non-classical literature person (me), and a friend who is a mythology
>professor.
>
>During a recent conversation, he questioned me about the differences
>or similarities I saw between the writing styles of Pindar and Seneca.
>While I've read the Odes, and many of Seneca's works, huge
>differences, or similarities for that matter, don't readily jump out
>at me.
Odd. They're different on every level.
>I went back and pulled my books out and re-read some of them
>with this comparison in mind, but I don't pick up a whole lot. On
>their face, Seneca seems a more graphic, descriptive writer,
Hardly. I don't know all of Seneca but I'd go dollars that he never
matches Pindar's images and conceits.
>but I
>wonder if that has to do with the more modern time that he wrote in?
What? What do you mean "more modern time"?
>Side by side, their plays seem very similar,
There is no evidence to suggest that Pindar ever wrote a play.
>and the differences or
>similarities subtle, if any.
I'm still not sure how you could possibly come to this conclusion.
>I must say, I'm reading the translations
>however.
>
Perhaps this is the reason.
>Can anyone just point out some areas that I should be paying closer
>attention to?
>Are there glaring similarities or differences that I'm
>just not seeing?
I can't really see how the two could be fruitfully compared, except
perhaps in their use of moral maxims, etc., which show up in both
authors with some persistence.