I'm an amateur and I just noodled this oddity:
Let a+1 = b. As a,b —> infinity, (a^b) / (b^a) ≈ (a+b)/2e ,
where e=2.718281… .
Or, to restate: If a+1=b, e ≈ (a+b)(b^a) / 2 (a^b) , as a,b —> infinity .
Is this a known result? Eg: Does it follow from some known
series results?