No mention is made however, even in the Smṛti article where it treats of memorization methods, of how the Smṛti were memorized and propagated.
Getting to my point here, gradually...
While researching the Sanatsujātīya I have found that there are several differing texts of it available. The variability reflects the fact that there are differing written versions of the entire Mahābhārata text.
Is it not so that, in olden times and before books were widely available, the epics were recited by wondering bards? And that these bards employed and propagated what we now call oral poetry? Isn’t it also so that, at least in the olden days, prior to books and the reading of the text in public events, any given epic recitation, such as of the Mahābhārata, would differ from another on a different occasion, even though recited or performed by the same bard? And I am aware that ‘bard’ is a European term; do please supply the correct term for epic recitation experts in Aryavarta.
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Would a signal difference between Śruti and Smṛti reside in the
memorization technique used? And in the recitation method, viz., as utterly
accurate reproduction verses the highly fluid oral poetry style of the bard?Esteemed friends,
I find the several replies here to my question about श्रुति versus स्मृति not only informative, but also elevating. Thank you very much. I hope you will indulge another related question.
Is the Bhagavad Gita in its own category?
As for written texts at least, the Gita text seems stable now. So far as I know there is only one version of it. By contrast, I have come across two differing texts for the Sanatsujātīya; and perhaps there are others too?
Further, I notice in the colophon to each Gita chapter, this phrase:
oṃ tatsaditi śrīmad bhagavadgītāsu upaniṣatsu...
This phrase would place the Gita in Śruti, if we follow current classification – and thank you, Shambhu, for identifying the Upanishads as “samAdhi + mental analysis,” and for that reason not quite at the original level of mantra revelation.
But is the Gita at the level of mantra revelation, do we suppose? Otherwise, how do we account for the stability of the Gita text, in contrast to, for example, the Sanatsujatiya? And how do we account for the colophon term, उपनिषत्सु ? If we agree that the Gita is among the Upanishads, how would it have landed within the great Smṛti epic?
Esteemed friends,
I find the several replies here to my question about श्रुति versus स्मृति not only informative, but also elevating. Thank you very much. I hope you will indulge another related question.
Is the Bhagavad Gita in its own category?
As for written texts at least, the Gita text seems stable now. So far as I know there is only one version of it. By contrast, I have come across two differing texts for the Sanatsujātīya; and perhaps there are others too?
Just to add what Bhat Mahoday said about shruti and smritis. The smRtis were composed at a much later time when things were written down, (in the epic and classical period) so the imperative to remember everything through chants committed to memory no longer applied. People could read what was written. They did not need to rely on memory So there was no need for these memory decives – such as using a formulaic style, particular Vedic meters. etc.
I wrote this response below to a question from Eddie on the YogasUtras:
”I don’t really understand what you mean by “divine nature” of the work. To give you a partial answer, the traditional recognises the Vedas as “revelations” because they are supposed to be handed down through the oral tradition by the RSis, and that long lineage is given at the end of every upaniSad going right back to Brahma or one of the deities – so it is considered divine in the tradition. No one is supposed to have written it – it is apauruSa (authorless). However the gItA is a work embedded in a larger work, the MahabhAratha which is supposed to be written by VyAsa (though he may be a mythological figure). Even so, this text (GItA), is considered a sort of honorary shruti because it contains the actual words of kRSNa as quotes. The sUtra literature does not fall into this category, and yogasUtras has an author and anyway I think according to this philosophy it is atheistic”.
Vimala
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I shall attempt an answer to your following question, based upon my
general knowledge. I do not hold myself out as a Geeta scholar.
< But is the Gita at the level of mantra revelation, do we suppose?
Otherwise, how do we account for the stability of the Gita text, in
contrast to, for example, the Sanatsujatiya? And how do we account
for the colophon term, उपनिषत्सु ? If we agree that the Gita is among
the Upanishads, how would it
have landed within the great Smṛti epic? >
There is no doubt that the Geeta of 700 odd verses that has stabilized
by now, is a part of the epic Mahabharata, as the following verse from
गीतास्तुति says:
पार्थाय प्रतिबोधितां भगवता नारायणेन स्वयं
व्यासेनोद्ग्रथितां पुराणमुनिना मध्ये महाभारतम्।
लोके सज्जनषट्पदैरहरह: पेपीयमानं मुदा
भूयाद्भारतपङ्कजं कलिमलप्रध्वंसि नः श्रेयसे॥
This verse credits Vyaasa with the inclusion of Geeta in Mahabharat.
The Mahabharat itself was in the process of composition and
augmentation over several centuries and, along with it, probably the
Geeta text too has undergone several stages of augmentation before its
stabilization into the present compendium of 700 and odd verses. The
pithy and practical guidance given by Krishna to Arjuna just when the
two opposing armies, drawn up in battle array, were about to crash
into each other, could not have been in the form of 700 verses of
philosophical thought. (That would take several hours! And, of course,
no scribe was available at hand to take down those verses.) The
original teaching must have been a few strong words of prose. Those
who contributed to the creation of Mahabharat in its present form, all
collectively falling under the name of Vyaasa, must have worked upon
the original teaching of Krishna to expand it into a collection of 700
verses. In that process these several composers added their own
thoughts and philosophies into it and that is why different
interpreters interpret the teaching of Geeta in different ways. At
this stage it is not possible to deconstruct Geeta – though some have
attempted it - and retrace its expansion from a few words of Krishna
into 700 verses.
Geeta encompasses teachings of several UpaniShads into it. That is
why the गीतास्तुति has the following verse in it:
सर्वोपनिषदो गावो दोग्धा गोपालनन्दनः।
पार्थो वत्सः सुधीर्भोक्ता दुग्धं गीतामृतं महत्॥
Calling Geeta an UpaniShad should be seen as an expression of
reverence towards it. It does not literally mean that it was
initially an UpaniShad and got included later in the Smriti work of
Mahabharat. The colophon इति श्रीमद्भगवद्गीतासूपनिषत्सु
ब्रह्मविद्यायां योगशास्त्रे श्रीकृष्णार्जुनसंवादे...अध्यायः॥ appearing
at the end of chapters of Geeta is an expression of the same
reverence.
Arvind Kolhatkar. Toronto, May 23, 2011.
I notice that an error has inadvertently crept in when I wrote out the
first verse of गीताध्यानम् as under in my earlier posting:
पार्थाय प्रतिबोधितां भगवता नारायणेन स्वयं
व्यासेनोद्ग्रथितां पुराणमुनिना मध्ये महाभारतम्।
लोके सज्जनषट्पदैरहरह: पेपीयमानं मुदा
भूयाद्भारतपङ्कजं कलिमलप्रध्वंसि नः श्रेयसे॥
It should read:
पार्थाय प्रतिबोधितां भगवता नारायणेन स्वयं
व्यासेनोद्ग्रथितां पुराणमुनिना मध्ये महाभारतम्।
अद्वैतामृतवर्षिणीं भगवतीमष्टादशाध्ययिनीम्
अम्ब त्वामनुसंदधामि भगवद्गीते भवद्वेषिणीम्॥
Sorry for this...
Arvind Kolhatkar, Toronto, March 25, 2011.
Reading Smt VimalAjI's email, reminded me about Srimad bhagavadpAda
zankarAcarya's analysis of the word paniSad in his bhASya of
kaThopaniSad - nad then to the following document, I had saved - I
honestly do not remember the source- on the meaning of the word
upaniSad.