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http://simplesanskrit.blogspot.com/
Thanks. Very comprehensive and illuminating. But, he says that word "Sloka" derives from "Shoka" based on Valmiki's "maa nishaada' verse. I doubt if this is right.Regards,Murthy
काव्यस्यात्मा स एवार्थस्तथा चादिकवेः पुरा ।
क्रौञ्चद्वन्द्ववियोगोत्थः शोकः श्लोकत्वमागतः ॥ १.५ ॥
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hariH OM,
" 2. s'oka-->s'loka etymology is not valid and does not appear to be suggested, seems to be s'abdasoundarya (word-play, if one prefers)"
We can observe in rāmāyaṇa, brāhmaṇa-like or upaniṣat-like nirvacanas to padas,
skanna -> skanda.
asura and sura because of not having and having drunk suraa.
1. Hence śoka->śloka can be taken in this spirit and we can choose not be too finicky about "etymology".
2. If we don't do this, we will also have to enlarge the scope of looking for word play in other granthas and call hṛdi + ayam = hṛdayam of chāndōgya and so also the many nirvacanas that we come across in brāhmaṇas and upaniṣats and nirukta as mere word play.
3. If item 2 is what you meant (enlarging the scope of looking for word play), then we will reach the same conclusions of the early European "scholars" about Veda / Śāstra.
svasti,
JAYA BHAVAANII BHAARATII,
shrivathsa.
शोकार्तस्य प्रवृत्तो मे श्लोको भवतु नान्यथा is what one finds in bAla, 2nd sarga, shloka 18 in vAlmiikirAmAyaNam pub. giitaa press.
Isn't this enough proof nAgarAja varya?
Why it is named श्लोक is explained in the commentaries. But no commentary says the word श्लोक is derived from शोक etymologically. Why should one guess wildly to justify the sentence "derived" in the blog mean? There is no hint in the verse itself that the word श्लोक is derived from the word शोक, as far as I can see through the commentaries.
"श्लोको यशसि पद्ये च" इति निघण्टुः ।। 1.2.18 ।।
hariH OM,
HN varya, with prostrations at your feet,
If we don't accept shoka -> shloka, we will have to reject skanna -> skanda malada, karuuSha, apsaras, sura, asura in rAmAyaNa and also other such nirvacanas in brAhmaNa granthas. Going back to my previous post will be to go full circle.
This "style" of giving nirvacanas is found in brAhmaNas, either by way of connected words or by way of AkhyAyikAs. Just the way the prakRRiti pratyaya vibhaaga according to vyaakaraNa will be different from the nirvacanas found in brAhmaNas, it may not be fair to impose strict conditions of prakRRiti pratyaya vibhaaga on rAmAyaNa given that it is aarSha. Hence the requirement for shloka's dhAtu to meet the meaning of "shoka" will be unfair. Another example I wrote was ChAndogya's nirvacana of AtmA = hRRidi ayam = hRRidayam. One cannot say that because the nirvacana for AtmA comes from hRRidayam, there is no connection (prakRRiti pratyaya vibhaaga through hRRidayam will not lead to AtmA). But the connection is very much there, that is because the grantha is ArSha. When I had asked a vyaakaraNa scholar about the impossibility of deriving AtmA from hRRidayam, he told that this has to be taken as it is because the authority of a brAhmaNa grantha is higher than prakRRiti pratyaya vibhaaga.
I am not justifying the blog. Even when this portion was included in our school curriculum, it was titled as "shokaH shlokatvamAgataH". Hence shoka -> shloka has been imprinted in my mind since about 20 years. I am able to see that it is justifiable.
svasti,
JAYA BHAVAANII BHAARATII,
shrivathsa.
Why it is named श्लोक is explained in the commentaries. But no commentary says the word श्लोक is derived from शोक etymologically. Why should one guess wildly to justify the sentence "derived" in the blog mean? There is no hint in the verse itself that the word श्लोक is derived from the word शोक, as far as I can see through the commentaries.
"श्लोको यशसि पद्ये च" इति निघण्टुः ।। 1.2.18 ।।
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Enough evidence has been given to show why the claim of shoka -> shloka can be justified by considering it an ArSha nirvacana in line with brAhmaNas.
One example I had forgotten was that of maruts. They being named because of the story where Indra cuts diti's foetus into pieces. All the pieces start crying. Indra asks the pieces not to cry (maa rudaH) and hence the name marut.
The prakRRiti pratyaya vibhaaga for marut according to vAcaspatyam is मृ उति. This isn't connected to maa or rudaH. But the nirvacana is valid because it comes from an ArSha grantha.
I don't know how seeing a pattern writ all over the bAlakANDaH is tantamount to attributing our understanding to maharShis. This is the metaphoric equivalent of shooting the messenger. On the contrary, denying the nirvacanas is tantamount to disrespect to them and their granthas.
I wish to stop here with prostrations at your feet.
svasti,
JAYA BHAVAANII BHAARATII,
shrivathsa.