3rd out question - history???
Peter Callen
There was a recent editorial in the Wall Street Journal on Friday
about the Cubs and talking about history. Specifically they
re-explained how they won the Pennant in 1908 with the "Merkel" out
when they played the Giants. For those that don't know it, the score
was 1-1 in the 9th inning with two outs and Giants men on 1st and 3rd.
A single was hit and the man from 3rd scored. Merkel who was on 1st,
didn't touch 2nd base but instead went into the dugout. The Cubs got
the ball went to 2nd stepped on the base and declared Merkel as out.
This was declared a tie and the game was replayed at which time the
cubs won.
I believe the rule now is that while the play is still in progress if
the run scores before the out is made, it counts and thus the game
today would be over. Was the rule different then?
Peter
p...@itsa.ucsf.edu
Nate Smith
Peter Callen wrote:
it depends on whether the out being made is a force out.
merkle was forced at 2nd.
if you bounce into a double play, say 6-4-3, and there is
nobody out and a runner from 3rd scores, it counts, although
the batter is not given a Run Batted In.
if there are 2 outs, bases loaded, 3rd swung&missed strike gets
past the catcher AND the batter doesnt realize he can run, AND
then all the baserunners score, AND then the catcher throws to
1st, FORCING out the batter, NONE of the runs count.
- nate
D. Barrington
Peter Callen <p...@itsa.ucsf.edu> wrote:
: There was a recent editorial in the Wall Street Journal on Friday
Unless there's some subtlety I'm missing, the rule is
no different today. The play at second was a _force_.
If the third out of the inning is obtained on a force play,
any run "scoring" during the play of that batted ball does not
count.
If the third out is made in a non-force situation, such as if Merkle
had overrun second and then been tagged out coming back, then the run
scoring before the out _would_ count.
Someone have a rule book to quote?
Dave MB
D. Barrington
D. Barrington <bar...@fiji.cs.umass.edu> wrote:
: [is rule underlying Merkle's Boner still in force?]
: Unless there's some subtlety I'm missing, the rule is
: no different today. The play at second was a _force_.
: If the third out of the inning is obtained on a force play,
: any run "scoring" during the play of that batted ball does not
: count.
: If the third out is made in a non-force situation, such as if Merkle
: had overrun second and then been tagged out coming back, then the run
: scoring before the out _would_ count.
If I'm right here, then in the following situation:
Runners on first and third, one out, batter hits grounder
to first, first baseman steps on the bag and throws to second,
where second baseman tags runner coming from first for the
third out.
the run _would_ count if the runner from third
reached the plate before the tag.
Dave MB
D. Barrington
D. Barrington <bar...@fiji.cs.umass.edu> wrote:
: [is rule underlying Merkle's Boner still in force?]
: Unless there's some subtlety I'm missing, the rule is
: no different today. The play at second was a _force_.
: If the third out of the inning is obtained on a force play,
: any run "scoring" during the play of that batted ball does not
: count.
: If the third out is made in a non-force situation, such as if Merkle
: had overrun second and then been tagged out coming back, then the run
: scoring before the out _would_ count.
If I'm right here, then in the following situation:
Dvd Avins
"D. Barrington" <bar...@fiji.cs.umass.edu> wrote in message
news:E1AC2bR-...@titanium.nocdirect.com...
<snip:
> If I'm right here, then in the following situation:
>
> Runners on first and third, one out, batter hits grounder
> to first, first baseman steps on the bag and throws to second,
> where second baseman tags runner coming from first for the
> third out.
>
> the run _would_ count if the runner from third
> reached the plate before the tag.
Yes, that's the way it works.