An unusual response decision
Frisbieinstein
to 17 HCP.
RHO passes. You hold
-
KT9875
QJ7652
6
?
paul
1NT, what else? Over 2C I'll continue with 2H. Over 2D I'll pass,
yeah, we might have a slam, not likely. Over 2H I'll take a shot at 4.
Over 2S I'll pass.
henry...@yahoo.com
Quite an aggravating problem.
I have to bury one of my red suits, so I think I'll bury diamonds and
respond 2h, intending to rebid 3h, nf, over 2s.
The problem with bidding 2h is that is opener has a black two suiter,
my hand is worthless.
The problem with not bidding 2h is that opener has something like
AKxxxx
AQx
x
Axx
and we never find hearts or our potentially making heart slam.
Since I have to make a decision right now, I will choose the path that
brings the greatest reward and respond 2h.
Henrysun909
jackie...@gmail.com
1 NT, and pass anything except diamonds (tempted to try for game if he
rebid hearts, but not diamonds). Why repeat my hand, and encourage/
penalize my partner?
His limit bid makes my bid easier.
Spud
Frisbieinstein
Here is the deal
-
KT9875
QJ7652
6
J764 Q952
QJ 32
AT3 4
K982 AT7543
AKT83
A64
K98
QJ
North passed. It's a reasonable decision, since someone will probably
balance. Too bad South has a maximum. South managed to make the 1S,
which seems almost miraculous.
The field was in 4H, making 3 IMPs.
henry...@yahoo.com
I don't agree that passing 1s with the actual North hand is a
reasonable decision. I mean, as little as
xxxxx
Qxx
Ax
xxx
gives you play for game (not real good play, but then even I would
consider passing the 5=3=2=3 6 count in 1st seat). When opener shows
values, I think you have to respond.
Whether you respond 1nt (as most did) or 2h (as I did) is less
important than esponding with something.
Henrysun909
Frisbieinstein
wrote:
Well, I agree with you. I would never pass a hand like this either.
I've had several partners who do, though.
Frisbieinstein
Here's another one:
I open 1H, partner has
AKJ
-
T8
T9876542
Partner passes. I'm mean really, come on, that can't possibly be
right. 2C is strong, 3C is strong, 4C is a splinter, but can't you
at least bid 1NT partner?
castigamatti
Not necessarily.
:-)
B.R.
P.S. Monty Phyton
:-) 2C as not always GF is a better idea.
henry...@yahoo.com
Yeah, passing can't be right. After all, wouldn't you want to be in
5c opposite as little as
xxx
xxxxx
xxx
AK
and partner might be a little better than that.
On this hand, I again bid 2c and then rebid 3c, NF. If partner passes
3c, I'm happy. If he pulls to 3nt, then he either has fitting clubs
or spade length, in which case i can hope for 3 entries to set up my
clubs (assuming that he had diamonds adequately under control).
Henrysun909
Eric Leong
>
> - Show quoted text -
4H can be set with a diamond lead.
Eric Leong
Derek Broughton
I really don't have a problem with 2C on this. I know my usual partner
frequently disagrees with this sort of bidding :-), but you _have_ to bid
with 8 points and a long suit. I think I'd rather risk 1S than 1N.
--
derek
boblipton
I want to know who he fellow in the passout seat is. I know that most
duplicate players and probably no computer player will pass, but there
are situations where 2Cx wll work very nicely.
But, almost all the time a bid is called for.
Bob
Frisbieinstein
It was duplicate on the computer. I guess he was concerned about
1S 2H
2S 3D
3S ?
henry...@yahoo.com
Why would one bid 2h and then 3d with this hand? 2h and then 3h is
already an overbid, but 2h then 3d is an even bigger overbid since the
former is passable but the latter is GF (unless 1s 2h is
unconditionally GF in which case 1nt is probably a superior response).
Henrysun909