1x-1y
1z-3NT
1x-1y
1z-2D
any-2NT
1x-1y
1z-2D
any-3NT
Also, does the sequence
1x-1y
1z-2C
any-3NT
have any utility for you?
Thanks. --Bob Park
>
>1x-1y
>1z-2C
>any-3NT
>
My notes on xyz states that 2C is a relay to 2D. Any bid other than 2D is not
allowed. Then 2NT after 2D is invitational to 3NT with a balanced hand. 3NT
over 2D shows hcp needed for game without fit for partner but balanced.
Tcyk -- Charles Gray, Sun City, Arizona
Thanks. But why would responder not just jump to 3NT over 1z then?
I really should have stated the auction as
1x-1y
1M-3NT and
1x-1y
1M-2C
2D-3NT (When Z = NT, there is no problem.)
My conjecture is that these two sequences should have different meanings
-- one (say) 13-15 HCP and the other 16-something. I was hoping to find
folks who might have experience to share here.
FWIW, 2C in X-Y-Z is not an absolute force to 2D. If opener has a hand
that makes stopping at 2D unwise, he should reject the relay and bid
something else.
FWIW #2: I have been playing X-Y-Z for several months now with 2
partners, and I rather like it, though there are some holes in the
write-ups for X-Y-Z and the closely related modified two-way Stayman in
Hardy's last book -- especially if you play Walsh responses. X-Y-Z
actually unifies the two. As far as I have been able to tell to date, it
doesn't help in game and part score bidding (doesn't hurt, either), but
it does add useful descriptive power when responder holds hands with
slam potential.
Any one else care to comment?
Robert Park wrote:
> Tcyk wrote:
> > In article <b6d185b3.04060...@posting.google.com>,
> > bobp...@earthlink.net (bobpark) writes:
> >
> >
> >>1x-1y
> >>1z-2C
> >>any-3NT
> >>
> >
> >
> > My notes on xyz states that 2C is a relay to 2D. Any bid other than 2D is not
> > allowed. Then 2NT after 2D is invitational to 3NT with a balanced hand. 3NT
> > over 2D shows hcp needed for game without fit for partner but balanced.
> >
> > Tcyk -- Charles Gray, Sun City, Arizona
>
> Thanks. But why would responder not just jump to 3NT over 1z then?
>
> I really should have stated the auction as
>
> 1x-1y
> 1M-3NT and
>
> 1x-1y
> 1M-2C
> 2D-3NT (When Z = NT, there is no problem.)
>
> My conjecture is that these two sequences should have different meanings
> -- one (say) 13-15 HCP and the other 16-something. I was hoping to find
> folks who might have experience to share here.
That seems like a reasonable idea. I would logically use 2C, 3N to be stronger than
...3N; the more bids you make the stronger your hand. Or Fast Arrival. However, you
may not be able to bid 3N with confidence until you hear opener's rebid; the cases
may actually be identical.One doesn't have this problem using a big club, so it
hasn't come up for me.
I have no idea whatsoever what you are talking about. I don't imagine
I'm alone here.
You could play this as showing 12-14 balanced and go thru 2D with the
same hand type but 15-17 HCP. ALternatively, you could use this to
show a hand that is VERY certain that 3NT looks like the right strain,
(e.g., 2+ stoppers in the 4th suit, but go thru 2D with more doubt
about strain. Or some combination of both.
>
> 1x-1y
> 1z-2D
> any-2NT
Implies slam interest or interest in alternative strains. The usual
reason to bid 2D is because responder holds 5 cards in his suit and
hopes to find a 3-card fit.
>
> 1x-1y
> 1z-2D
> any-3NT
See above.
>
> Also, does the sequence
>
> 1x-1y
> 1z-2C
> any-3NT
>
> have any utility for you?
A.
X-Y-Z is an extension to 2-way checkback stayman. Normally 2-way
checkback only applies after 1x-1y-1nt sequences. When playing XYZ,
you use 2-way checkback in auctions that begin 1x-1y-1M in addition.
After 1x-1y-1M, With all invitational hands, responder starts with 2C.
Any other call is either weak, or game-forcing. 1x-1y-1M-2d
essentially takes the place of 4SF, but it is an absolute GF.
secondary jumps become GF picture bids, showing good suits, good
distribution, values concentrated in long suits, etc.
A.
>When playing the X-Y-Z convention, what distinctions do you draw among
>the following sequences?
>
>1x-1y
>1z-3NT
>
We play this to show a 6 or 7 card running suit with no ace or king in an
outside suit; just like gambling no trump.
>1x-1y
>1z-2D
>any-2NT
>
Points for 3nt but unbalanced or semibalanced hand. Another contract is
possible. I liked the suggestion that this could be slam investigation while
the direct 3nt would show little interest in slam.
>1x-1y
>1z-2D
>any-3NT
>
Points for 3nt with balanced hand
>Also, does the sequence
>
>1x-1y
>1z-2C
>any-3NT
>
>have any utility for you?
>
Same as the direct 3NT above, a running suit but with an outside entry.
This is an article written by Joseph Kivel. He won the LM pairs in 1995. It is
from Bridge Today; November/December 1995.
- After the sequence by us (with or without interference) of 1x-1y: 1z the
- responses are as follows
-
- Opener Responder
- 1x 1y
- 1z ?
-
- 2C = asks partner to bid 2D; responder's next bid is invitational.
- 2D = shows a game-forcing hand, with various contracts in mind
- 2NT = invitational
- 3C = signoff
- 3D/H/S = game forcing
-
The sequences discussed by Bob Park are not directly discussd in the article
but we used the following as a guide:
- An endless number of sequences are available to distinguish good and bad
- suits. For example, compare the following sequences:
-
- West East
- 1m 1H
- 1z 4H
-
- 1m 1H
- 1z 2C
- 2D 4H (why did East bid 2C?)
-
- 1m 1H
- 1z 3H (forcing)
-
- 1m 1H
- 1z 2D
- 2NT 3H (why did East bid 2D)
-
- 1m 1H
- 1z 2D
- 2NT 4H (why not 3H)
- Each of these sequences can be defined to show a different type of hand. We
have not developed the system sufficiently at this point to distinguish
between all of these bids, but when we bid 2D as the game force, we usually
have more choices for the final contract than when we jump in our suit.
- What is the difference between:
- 1x-1y
- 1z- 2N
- and going through 2C and then bidding 2NT?
-
- We us the 2C sequence to show a hand that has the appropriate point count
- but offers a choice of contracts. E.g. some type of 5-4-3-1 hand or other
- semi-unbalanced hand.
Tcyk