On Sunday, April 29, 2012 2:10:55 PM UTC-4, Andrew B. wrote:
> On 28/04/2012 23:27, Andrew B wrote:
> > Playing duplicate pairs (at a British club), I held:
> >
> >
> > Partner opened 1S (4 card-majors), I responded 2C (10+, not game
> > forcing), and partner rebid 2S, with our opponents passing throughout.
> >
> > Would you now bid 3NT, or 4S? (If you opt to bid 3H instead, partner
> > will bid 3S and you have the same choice).
>
> Having seen the answers so far (a slight lead for 4S), I thought I'd
> show you partner's hand:
>
>
> So quite a thin 1S bid there... as it happens, I decided to bid 3NT - I
> assume no-one would correct to 4S with this? And, having seen both
> hands, would you now rather be in 3NT (played by the top hand) or 4S
> (played by the bottom hand)?
S: QJ3
H: AK32
D: KT9
C: KT7
S: K97542
H: Q6
D: 653
C: AJ
In 4S opener expects to lose 2 diamonds and a spade
against best defense, while in 3NT responder expects
to lose those plus at least an additional diamond
more than half the time.
But what does that prove? Opener, with only 24 zars
after adjusting for the poorly guarded minor honors,
and only 1-1/2 QT, has a thin opening even as light
openings go. Boost opener to a minimum by promoting
a diamond x to the queen and 3NT looks like the winner.
Fred.