Rules Question: Bearing Off

1 view

Colin Wiel

Jul 12, 2000, 3:00:00 AM7/12/00
to
I am x, and I am almost done bearing off, with the following board:

|o o o o o o| |. . . . . o|
|o o o o o o| | |
| o| | |
| | | |
| | | |
| | | |
| | | |
| | | |
| | | |
| x | | |
|o x . x . .| |. . . . . .|

I roll a 4-1. In order not to leave a piece open, I want to move the piece
on the 4-spot to the 3-spot (using up my 1), then move that piece off (using
up my 4). My opponent claims that that is illegal, and that I need to move
the maximum number of points possible, moving the man on the 4-spot off,
then moving a 1 from the 2-spot to the 1 spot, bumping his piece (and thus
giving him the chance to bump me back). Who is right?

Thanks,

- Colin

Pip_Panther

Jul 12, 2000, 3:00:00 AM7/12/00
to
Your move is indeed, legal. I've even seen the topic covered in several
introductory BG books.

"Colin Wiel" <co...@milo.com> wrote in message
news:smq825...@corp.supernews.com...

pol...@btinternet.com

Jul 13, 2000, 3:00:00 AM7/13/00
to
You most definitely are Colin - you can play either number first as long as
you eventually play both. If only one can be played then it must be the
higher of the two.

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Don Hanlen

Jul 13, 2000, 3:00:00 AM7/13/00
to

Completely legal, Colin.

--
don

Dave Slayton

Jul 14, 2000, 3:00:00 AM7/14/00
to
yes, totally legal....it LOOKS illegal cuz it "wastes" pips...but there's
nothing in the rules that says you must squeeze every pip possible out of
each roll, only that you move men for each die if you possibly can...but
there is no restriction on which of them you move first...

Colin Wiel wrote in message ...