>I try to answer a specific post before I read the others usually.
>Starting with the thread leader and then the ones that also answered
>the thread leader first.
When there'd been some discussion of a tangential issue, it's more than
likely that the matter had been thoroughly discussed if not clarified,
and you're followup wouldn't add anything to the discussion.
Plus, you enjoy adding recriminations and bitterness, as you did here:
>At anyrate he didn't differentiate between the colonial era and the
>dominion era.
You were very wrong, Hunter, and you need to acknowledge this.
--begin quote--
From: David Johnston <
davidjo...@block.com>
Date: Mon Jun 10 02:02:33 CDT 2013
Message-ID: <kp3tcc$ot6$
1...@dont-email.me>
On 6/9/2013 6:51 PM, Adam H. Kerman wrote:
>I have no idea to what extent slavery existed in Canada.
Not a lot. Upper Canada (What would later be named Ontario) passed a
law against it in 1793, and while Lower Canada (Quebec) and the
Maritimes kept it for longer, they never had plantion agriculture or
mines at the time so it was just a few house servants and wasn't that
hard to let go of.
--end quote--
>Even if the Nation of Canada didn't exist yet, the region was still
>called Canada and it had slavery.
That's wrong.
During that period in which apparently nothing more than household slavery
existed, no, that part of British North America wasn't called "Canada"
but "The Canadas" for the separate provinces of Upper Canada and Lower
Canada. The two colonies were merged into Province of Canada in 1841,
and then Canada became a dominion in 1867, effectively a nation but
subject to Parliament to revise its Constitution.
The Maritimes, which Johnston also referred to, were not called "Canada"
during the period in question when they had a minor amount of slavery,
and wouldn't be "Canada" till New Brunswick and Nova Scotia confederated
with Province of Canada to form the Dominion of Canada in 1867. The third
Maritime province, Prince Edward Island, wouldn't confederate into Canada
until 1873.
Note that the other Atlantic province, Newfoundland and Labrador, didn't
confederate into Canada until 1949 after suffering under years of scandal
from crushing national debt in the early 1930's. Newfoundland was a
Dominion from 1907 till 1949. A border dispute with regard to Labrador
being claimed by Lower Canada in the early 1800s (continued after Quebec
became a province in 1867) was settled by Parliament in 1927 when Labrador
was made part of Newfoundland. Johnston didn't address slavery in this
area, if any, but as I happened to look up the dates, I'm mentioning it
for completeness and don't always recall that Newfoundland wasn't one of
the Maritimes.
>As you point out it was abolished in Upper and Lower Canada which of
>course means it was legal before then.
You're not a scholar of mostly unwritten British constitutional law. I
don't agree that legislation specifically abolishing a practice indicated
it was legal. In one of the portions that is written, Magna Carta, I don't
recall a legal basis for slavery (although there could have been one for
serfdom). Perhaps it was never litigated, a la a slave who questioned
his status never had the ability to get into court, hardly unlikely in
the frontier.
British North America was corporate owned when the British began exploiting
it and prior to various portions of what's now Canada being governed as
colonies. Maybe the royal charters allowed some slavery, but I'm not
looking it up.
>But yes the Dominion of Canada in 1867 and later didn't have slavery
>at the time of the Charter of Rights was adopted.
That wasn't even at issue, given Empire-wide abolition of slavery in 1833,
with two exceptions.