Hi All,
Could someone please help me better understand how INLA structures a model with the group argument is used in the f() call? I am conducting a simulation study and would like to use an AR(1) model with grouping to analyze the simulated data. Ideally, I would like the simulation approach to match the model structure. From what I’ve read within the discussion forum and Virgilio Gómez-Rubio’s book (https://becarioprecario.bitbucket.io/inla-gitbook/ch-temporal.html#separable-models-with-the-group-option), I understand that the grouping function describes a GMRF with a mean of zero and covariance matrix of τ∑b⊗∑w, where ∑b is the structure of the covariance between groups and ∑w is the structure within groups, although it seems odd that the covariance structures are multiplied by precision, unless I’m misunderstanding τ in the previous equation. I’ve also read that INLA fixes covariance at 1, making a ∑b matrix with 1 along the diagonal and the group ρ elsewhere:

However, I’m less sure about how the different group models (e.g., exchangeable, iid) are implemented. This leads me to three primary questions:
1) Are the sub-matrices of the GMRF covariance matrix multiplied by a precision parameter or am I misunderstanding τ? Since INLA uses precision I would expect τ∑b-1⊗∑w-1.
2) How are the different group models implemented? I’m particularly interested in the difference between the exchangeable and iid models. It seems like this comes down to the groupRho parameter, is the groupRho fixed at 0 for iid models, making ∑b an identity matrix?
3) When the group model is iid, what is the difference between using the group argument vs. the replicate argument (e.g., f(time, model=”ar1”, group=groupID, group.control=list(model=”iid”)) vs. f(time, model=”ar1”, replicate=groupID)? Models run with each formulation yield similar results and from what I’ve read, it seems like both calls result in AR(1) processes where groups share the same hyperparameters, but are not correlated. Is the difference that grouped iid model produces a nYear*nGroup X nYear*nGroup covariance matrix to simultaneously describe the ar(1) process for all groups, where as the replicate approach reuses the same nYear X nYear covariance matrix for each group?
I’ve attached a toy data set and R code simulating data to provide an example of how I think the models are structured, in case it helps to further describe my question.
Thanks,
Jason
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