Thank you Chris! Very much appreciated.
For the DOMDEV/HET p-values, would I get the same results by running a 2-degree regression vs. a simple regression with just the DOMDEV term?
As an example, here are three different results (using version 5 Sep 2021):
--glm allow-no-covars no-firth
#CHROM POS ID REF ALT A1 FIRTH? TEST OBS_CT OR LOG(OR)_SE Z_STAT P ERRCODE
22 70444587 . G T T Y ADD 22 27.4152 1.61471 2.05058 0.0403074 .
--glm genotypic allow-no-covars no-firth
#CHROM POS ID REF ALT A1 FIRTH? TEST OBS_CT OR LOG(OR)_SE Z_OR_F_STAT P ERRCODE
22 70444587 . G T T Y ADD 22 2.4721 1.00611 0.899575 0.368346 .
22 70444587 . G T T Y DOMDEV 22 11.3713 1.81354 1.34053 0.180075 .
22 70444587 . G T T Y GENO_2DF 22 NA NA 2.24169 0.129999 .
--glm hethom allow-no-covars no-firth
#CHROM POS ID REF ALT A1 FIRTH? TEST OBS_CT OR LOG(OR)_SE Z_OR_F_STAT P ERRCODE
22 70444587 . G T T Y HOM 22 6.11388 2.01247 0.899673 0.368294 .
22 70444587 . G T T Y HET 22 28.1112 1.65094 2.02076 0.0433044 .
22 70444587 . G T T Y GENO_2DF 22 NA NA 2.24172 0.129996 .
For example, OR and p-value for ADD in the first two models is not the same and also DOMDEV and HET in the last two models don't have the same p-values (though the GENO_2DF has the same p-values across the two models). Should I expect them to be the same?