Laplace method
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Debadeepta Dey
Jan 30, 2013, 2:09:30 PM1/30/13
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From the wiki explanation it seems that the Laplace method approximation is only applicable to functions f(x) which have a single global maxima at x0 which should lie within the interval of integration [a,b]. So for arbitrary f(x) this should fail to be good, right?
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