Jesus Is Lord Lord Of Lords

[Laurence Jabali]

Iwanted to know why little monks, feverishly translating the Bible would have picked the word LORD to replace the Hebrew word. It seemed that they wanted to honor the Jewish tradition of substituting LORD for Jehovah out of respect.

I found that Lords in the Middle ages (the time when those faithful monks would have been doing their best to translate the Bible into their languages) leased land to other individuals. A lord would usually have more than one tenant. A lord would have to be nobility before they could be considered a lord. Lords leased property to a vassal, who then paid them and was responsible to them. Lords and vassals existed under the feudal system. I guess this explanation makes a lord of the past like a landlord of today.

It also appears that Lord in lower case letters in the King James Bible is a title that refers to rulers of various kinds, such as God, king, governor, prince, prophet, father, captain, and angel. Thus, Jehovah, a word that appears in the Old Testament a hand full of times, becomes the center of the Old Testament prophecies and testimonies! Jesus Christ, Jesus the Messiah is the center of the whole thing! From the beginning to the end, Jehovah, Jesus the Christ, is the God of the Old Testament!

Other names I found for Jesus Christ in the Book of Mormon include: Almighty, Almighty God, Alpha and Omega, Being, Beloved, Beloved Son, Christ, Christ Jesus, Christ the Son, Counselor, Creator, Eternal Father, Eternal God, Eternal Head, Eternal Judge, Everlasting Father, Everlasting God, Father, Father of heaven, Father of heaven and earth, Founder of Peace, God, God of Abraham, God of Abraham, and Isaac, and Jacob, God of Abraham, and of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, God of Isaac, God of Israel, God of Jacob, God of miracles, God of nature, God of the whole earth, Good shepherd, Great Creator, Great Spirit, Head, Holy Child, Holy God, Holy Messiah, Holy One, Holy One of Israel, Holy One of Jacob, Husband, Immanuel, Jehovah, Jesus,Jesus Christ, Keeper of the gate, King, King of heaven, Lamb, Lamb of God, Lord, Lord God, Lord Almighty, Lord God Almighty, Lord God Omnipotent, Lord God of Hosts, Lord Jehovah, Lord Jesus, Lord Jesus Christ, Lord of the Vineyard, Maker, Man, Master, Mediator, Messiah, Mighty God, Mighty One of Israel, Mighty One of Jacob, Most High, Most High God, Only Begotten of the Father, Only Begotten Son, Prince of Peace, Prophet, Redeemer of Israel, Redeemer of the world, Rock, Savior Jesus Christ, Savior of the world, Shepherd, Son, Son of God, Son of Righteousness, Son of the Eternal Father, Son of the Everlasting God, Son of the Living God, Son of the Most High God, Stone, Supreme Being, Supreme Creator, True and Living God, True Messiah, True Shepherd, True Vine, Well Beloved, Wonderful

What do you think it means to take the name of the Lord in vain? Since God says He "will not hold him guiltless who takes His name if vain," I think it would be wise to know what it means. Many believe that it simply means not to curse using God's name. Though that is certainly inappropriate and showing the utmost disrespect for Him, that is not all that is meant by this command.

Another way we can take His name in vain is to use it casually in phrases such as "Oh, my God!" or "Jesus!" Even phrases like "Thank God" or "Praise the Lord" are often used in a less than sincere and reverent manner. These type phrases are commonly used in daily speech without really giving any thought to God. For the most part, they have become simply figures of speech.

We can also take God's name in vain when we use it to swear an oath such as "I swear to God." If we lie or do not follow through on the oath, we have taken His name in vain. But as bad as all these misuses of the Lord's name are, there is still an even more serious way in which we can take His name in vain.

To understand the fullness of the commandment we need to consider the meaning of the word "vain." Webster's defines vain as 1) having no real value or significance; worthless, empty, idle, hollow, etc.; 2) without force or effect; futile, fruitless, unprofitable, unavailing, etc.

Though these definitions certainly apply in the examples cited above, I ask you to consider this: To take God's name in vain is to say we are Christian but not live a life in keeping with that profession. Many bear His name without it having any

real effect on their life. What God is saying is that we should not claim His name without living under His lordship. Taking the Lord's name in vain is another way of saying "false believer" or "hypocrite."

Jesus put it this way in Mark 7:6-9 "Isaiah was right when he prophesied about you hypocrites; as it is written: `These people honor me with their lips, but their hearts are far from me. They worship me in vain; their teachings are but rules taught by men.' You have let go of the commands of God and are holding on to the traditions of men." And He said to them: "You have a fine way of setting aside the commands of God in order to observe your own traditions!"

Notice that Jesus refers to those who "worship me in vain" as hypocrites. They take His name on their lips, but their hearts are far from Him. They care more for their own religious traditions than the commands of God. This same problem is plaguing the church today. Many have taken His name but have no interest in learning and following His ways. They "do church" as it has been handed down to them but have no real relationship with the Living God.

After delivering one of His most powerful sermons, Jesus poses the question in Luke 6:46-49, "Why do you call me, `Lord, Lord,' and do not do what I say?" In essence, He is saying, "Why do you take my name in vain? You call Me Lord, but do not do as I say. My name is useless to you."

Jesus continues in verses 47-48, "I will show you what he is like who comes to me and hears my words and puts them into practice. He is like a man building a house, who dug down deep and laid the foundation on rock. When a flood came, the torrent struck that house but could not shake it, because it was well built."

Jesus himself is often referred to in Scripture as the Rock. But in this parable, Jesus refers to obedience as laying the foundation of our spiritual house on solid rock. Those who truly belong to Him will obey His teachings and commands. Jesus said in John 14:15, "If you love me, you will obey what I command."

On the other hand, in verse 49 of Luke 6, Jesus goes on to describe the fate of those who take His name in vain: "But the one who hears my words and does not put them into practice is like a man who built a house on the ground without a foundation. The moment the torrent struck that house, it collapsed and its destruction was complete."

Jesus gave this alarming warning in Matthew 7:23, "Not everyone who says to me, `Lord, Lord,' will enter the kingdom of heaven, but only he who does the will of my Father who is in heaven. Many will say to me on that day, `Lord, Lord, did we not prophesy in your name, and in your name drive out demons and perform many miracles?' Then I will tell them plainly, `I never knew you. Away from me, you evildoers!'" Once again, Jesus makes clear that it is not the religious works of man that counts, but obeying the will of God out of a genuine relationship with Him.

Let me leave you with a final thought. How often do you study the Word of God in order to find out what Jesus expects of you? And how diligent are you to obey the things you know He commands? Are you truly living a life worthy of the Name you profess? We must all take a good long hard look at our life to see if we may be taking the Lord's name in vain. Its serious business, for eternal life is at stake.

In addition to this, I would like to hear about the context of this passage being quoted in the New Testament (Matt 22:44, Mark 12:36, Luke 20:42, Acts 2:34). Do these NT quotations change the meaning it would have had for its original hearers? How so?

I see the first part of your question as having two elements. Element 1, "The Lord says to My Lord" is a conversation between God The Father (Elohim) and Christ The Son (Jesus Christ). Element 2, it was necessary to distinguish a conversation between two who could both be described as God, or Lord. The reason one is "The Lord" and the other "My Lord" is because though God The Father is creator of all, David knew that there would be a more direct relationship with The Christ as a personal savior and redeemer of his house, and Israel as a whole. Hence Christ being David's Lord, or "My Lord."

As for the NT portion of your question, I can point to Matthew 22:41-46, as a clearer reference that this meaning as I explained was understood NT times, Jesus Christ was the Lord of Psalm 110, of David, and of the House of Israel, and "The Lord" was God The Father.

In the original Hebrew we find the LORD (yud-hey-vahv-hey) says to my Lord (Adonee). The second lord, being in the singular, is referring to a human king or nobleman. In historical context it becomes clear that this psalm, written by David, was meant to be sung by the kohenim during temple liturgy. The kohenim would sing "The LORD says to my lord (king solomon, David, etc) etc"

Please note two different translations below,you may have noticed some translations "the LORD said to my LORD" or the " Lord said to my Lord", such bibles do not make sense , this is due to theological bias that has filtered in these translations.

The psalmist, David inspired by God made the prophecy ,he may not have fully understood it, however with the fulfilment of the prophecy after Jesus returned to heaven as a spiritual being, the apostles and his followers understood it and so they mentioned it in the scriptures as noted by you.

In first century Second-Temple [hellenistic] Judaism, only God is known as the 'one Lord' (Greek: eis kurios) as read in the Shema from the Septuagint but Christians ascribed this same Lordship to Jesus their Messiah which shows devotion to Jesus as God (source).

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