I have wondered why the Earldom of Arlington was not called out of abeyance at the same time as the barony, and could see no reason for this, so it is good to know that there is an explanation. It sounds as if it was the choice of the title-holder, but perhaps you cannot say more?
Nick
--
You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups "Peerage News" group.
To view this discussion on the web visit https://groups.google.com/d/msg/peerage-news/-/ERyi00W1EiAJ.
To post to this group, send email to peerag...@googlegroups.com.
To unsubscribe from this group, send email to peerage-news...@googlegroups.com.
For more options, visit this group at http://groups.google.com/group/peerage-news?hl=en.
I agree; that makes no sense at all!
Nick
From: peerag...@googlegroups.com [mailto:peerag...@googlegroups.com] On Behalf Of marquess
Sent: 11 November 2012 13:45
To: peerag...@googlegroups.com
Subject: Re: Abeyant or dormant peerages
No my understanding is that there was no precedence for an English earldom falling into such a condition and then being called out, rather silly really as the two peerages were created with the same remainder so if the barony can be called out based upon that remainder then so too should the earldom. Cromartie is a UK earldom which was created with a convoluted remainder as an approximation of a Scottish earldom, yet it was called out of abeyance.
--
You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups "Peerage News" group.
To view this discussion on the web visit https://groups.google.com/d/msg/peerage-news/-/FiVwSrNVysUJ.