{Group of Nursing Intern In KKUH} FW: اختبار لبعض معلوماتنا االطبييه,,,,,,,,,,,
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From: zeze...@hotmail.com
To: zeze...@hotmail.com
Subject: اختبار لبعض معلوماتنا االطبييه,,,,,,,,,,,
Date: Fri, 23 Apr 2010 03:29:57 +0000
شباب وبنات اتمنى كل واحد يحل الاسئله اللي متاكد من اجاباتها وياليت تنرسل الاجوبه للقروب كامل
بالتوفيق,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,..............................
Morphine sulfate is least likely to be used for:
a. Pulmonary edema
b. Cerebral edema
c. Acute MI management
d. Chest pain management
Endotracheal intubation does all the following except:
a. Reduce the risk of aspiration
b. Should be accomplished in 30 seconds or less
c. Permits tracheal suctioning
d. Provides a route for administration of atropine, lidocaine, and valium
3 Management of unstable patients may necessitate the use of electrical therapy. Identify the correct initial and subsequent energy settings for the management of electrical therapy for unstable SVT patients.
a. 50-100, 200, 300, 360 joules monophasic
b. 200, 200, 300, 360 joules monophasic
c. 100-200, 300, 360 joules monophasic
d. 200, 300, 360 joules monophasic
Which of the following factors are least likely to reduce transthoracic resistance for defibrillation?
a. Administration of epinephrine before the defibrillation attempts
b. Application of firm paddle pressure or use of hands-free defibrillation pads
c. Use of a conduction gel
Which one of the following rhythms is seen most commonly in the first few minutes of cardiac arrest?
a. Asystole
b. Complete heart block
c. Idioventricular
d. Ventricular fibrillation
The rate of sinus tachycardia is:
a. Greater than 100 beats/minute up to when the "P" waves are no longer visible
b. 100-160 beats/minute
c. 60-100 beats/minute
d. Less than 60 beats/minute
What is the initial dose of atropine in an unstable bradycardia?
a. 0.5mg/kg
b. .04mg/kg
c. 0.5mg
d. 1.5mg
Dopamine infusions at 10-15mcg/kg/min will likely produce:
a. Peripheral vasoconstriction and marked tachycardia
b. Systemic vasoconstriction and increased renal perfusion
c. Renal blood vessel dilation and peripheral vasoconstriction
d. Beta receptor stimulating effects resulting in increased cardiac output
You have been called to a patient in cardiac arrest. You find a 43 year old male who is unresponsive, pulseless and not breathing. CPR is being properly performed. As the crash cart arrives you quick-look and see ventricular fibrillation. Which of the following will you perform next?
a. Precordial thump, CPR, ET tube, Epi, and defibrillate
b. CPR, ET tube, IV, Epi, and defibrillate
c. Defibrillate with 360 joules
d. CPR, ET tube, IV, lidocaine, and defibrillate
62 year old male watching TV when he felt a "fluttering" chest. He denies chest pain and SOB. He is A&Ox4, but anxious. BP 150/84, Resp 16, HR 180. EKG is a wide complex. He has no significant past medical history and takes no medications. Which of the following is least likely to be indicated?
a. Synchronized cardioversion
b. Start oxygen therapy
c. Administer lidocaine
d. Administer verapamil
Atropine may be used in treating all of the following except?
a. Asystole
b. Symptomatic sinus bradycardia
c. Ventricular tachycardia
d. Bradycardia pulseless electrical activity
During a resuscitation, the use of epinephrine are all correct except?
a. May be replaced by vasopressin
b. Given every 3-5 minutes
c. Given via an endotracheal tube at 1mg
d. Given at doses of 0.1mg/kg
. A 36 year old female is complaining of heart palpitations. She is A&Ox4, denies SOB and chest pain. BP 144/80, Resp 14, HR 180. EKG is regular and narrow complex. Which of the following medications would not be considered?
a. Adenosine
b. Lidocaine
c. Verapamil
d. Diltiazem
A 55 year old female complaining of chest pain. BP 126/72, Resp 14, HR 138. EKG narrow complex and regular. Management includes:
a. Oxygen, vagal maneuvers, adenosine 6mg rapid IV push
b. Oxygen, IV, verapamil 2.5mg slow IV bolus
c. Oxygen, IV, nitro, morphine, lidocaine
d. Oxygen, IV, nitro, morphine
A 72 year old female in respiratory arrest. You have intubated the patient and note breath sounds are present on the right but diminished on the left. What is the most likely the cause?
a. Left mainstem intubation
b. Mucous plug in the ET tube
c. Right mainstem intubation
d. Esophageal intubation. A 33 year old female with decreased level of consciousness. BP 100/palp, Resp 24 shallow, HR 170. EKG narrow and regular. Which treatment first?
a. Administer a fluid challenge
b. Defibrillate with 200 joules
c. Administer adenosine
d. Administer supplemental oxygen
An 18 year old drive-by shooting. Responds only to painful stimuli with BP 60/40, Resp 28 labored, HR 140. EKG sinus tachycardia. GSW to right chest with absent breath sounds on right and diminished on left. The right side of the chest is hyperresonant to percussion. How will you manage this patient?
a. Pericardiocentesis
b. Needle decompression of right thorax
c. Administer oxygen
d. Establish an IV NS or LR
What is the recommended dose of epinephrine 1:10000 via IV?
a. 1mg
b. 2mg
c. 3mg
d. 4mg
What is the recommended dose of lidocaine in ventricular fibrillation?
a. .5mg/kg
b. 2mg/kg
c. 1.5mg/kg
d. 3mg/kg
What is the recommended maximum dose of adenosine?
a. 20 mg
b. 6mg
c. 12mg
d. 30mg
What is the rate of compressions in a minute of CPR?
a. 80-100
b. 100
c. 100 plus
d. 80
When hyperventilating a patient before an intubation attempt the rate should be?
a. 12 per minute
b. 24 per minute
c. 30 per minute
d. 40 per minute
What is the dose of magnesium for a ventricular tachycardic rhythm?
a. 2mg
b. 2g
c. 3g
d. 1mg
What is the recommended does of atropine in asystole?
a. 1mg
b. 2mg
c. 1.5mg
d. .5mg
What is the dose of the second round of adenosine?
a. 6mg
b. 18mg
c. 12mg
d. 30mg. When ventilating an intubated patient the ventilation rate should be?
a. Once every 3 to 5 seconds
b. Once every 4 seconds
c. Once every 5 to 6 seconds
d. Once every 6 to 8 seconds
What is the dose of procainamide in ventricular rhythms?
a. 20-30mg/kg/min
b. 17mg/kg
c. 20-30mg/min
d. 1-4mg/min
What is the current acronym for drugs that can be delivered down the ET tube?
a. NAVEL
b. LEAN
c. VEAL
d. EPSON
All are correct about using an orapharyngeal airway except:
a. Remove with gag reflex
b. Measure from corner of mouth to ear lobe
c. Eliminates the need for proper head positioning
d. Reduces gastric distension
A bag-valve-mask (AMBU) with a reservoir can deliver what percentage of oxygen?
a. 80-100%
b. 60-80%
c. 50-60%
d. 70%
Mouth-to-mask can deliver what percentage of oxygen to a victim when not attached to supplemental oxygen?
a. 21%
b. 16%
c. 50%
d. 80%
When ventilating a non-breathing patient with room air the amount of tidal volume should be ___mL/kg over ____seconds.
a. 10mL/kg - 1 to 2 seconds
b. 5mL/kg - 3 to 4 seconds
c. 5mL/kg - 1 to 2 seconds
d. 8mL/kg - 2 seconds
This maneuver is used to reduce gastric distention when ventilating. One rescuer places downward pressure on the larynx while the other ventilates.
a. Cushing maneuver
b. Abdominal maneuvers
c. Sellick's maneuver
d. Tracheal gastric maneuver
All of the following are correct about the Esophageal-Tracheal Combitube except:
a. Inflate the proximal cuff with 100mL of air
b. Contraindicated in people under 4 feet tall
c. Minimal training requires
d. Device will only work appropriately when placed in the esophagus
All of the following are correct about the Pharyngotracheal Lumen Airway (PTL) except:
a. Contraindicated in patients over 50 years of age
b. Minimal training required
c. Contraindicated in patients under 5 feet tall
d. Both cuffs are inflate simultaneously when filled with air
Under new AHA guidelines a secondary airway assessment is to be performed once an ET tube is place. This assessment includes capnography and esophageal detector devices.
a. True
b. False
What is the minimum aged patient when using adult AED pads?
a. 1 year
b. 8 years
c. 12 years
d. Does not matter, the machine will adjust
What treatment is preferred for high degree heart blocks?
a. Atropine .5 to 1mg
b. Pacing
c. Lidocaine .75mg/kg
d. Cardioversion 50-100 joules
What is the dose of vasopressin in the ventricular fibrillation algorithm?
a. 40 mg once
b. 40 Units once
c. 1mg every 3-5 minutes
d. 40 Units repeated once in 5 minutes
Calcium chloride is clearly indicated in:
a. Hypokalemia
b. Hypercalcemia
c. Calcium channel blocker overdose
d. hypothermia
Amiodarone dose for a patient with a pulse in ventricular tachycardia is?
a. 300mg over 10 minutes
b. 150mg over 2 minutes
c. 3mg/kg every 20 minutes
d. 150mg over 10 minutes
What is the maximum dose of lidocaine IV?
a. 2mg/kg
b. 3mg/kg
c. 4mg/kg
d. 5mg.kg
What acronym is used to remember the medications to consider giving all MI patients?
a. SALLE
b. MONA
c. NOEL
d. DONA
Place the following priority goals in order when treating a cardiac patient?
a. Rhythm, BP, rate
b. Rate, rhythm, BP
c. BP, rate, rhythm
d. Rate, BP, rhythm
When looking at a 12-lead, what groupings would indicate an inferior MI?
a. Lead I, aVL, V5, V6
b. Lead V1, V2, V3, V4
c. Lead II, III, aVF
d. Lead II, V5, V6
List four currently recommended ventricular drugs in the ventricular fibrillation algorithm.
\ What is the depth of compressions when performing CPR?
a. 1 to 1 1/2 inches
b. 1 1/2 to 2 inches
c. 2 to 2 1/2 inches
d. 1/2 to 1 inch
What is the most common cause of PEA?
a. Acidosis
b. Hypovolemia
c. MI
d. Cardiac tamponade
49 Under current guidelines you may cardiovert stable ventricular tachycardia immediately.
a. True
b. False
Acute pulmonary edema with a BP or 92/60 may receive the following drugs except:
a. Oxygen
b. Dobutamine
c. Morphine
d. Dopamine
a. Atrial flutter
b. Ventricular tachycardia
c. Sinus with artifact
d. Atrial fibrillation
a. Sinus with PAC
b. 2 degree type 2
c. 2 degree type 1
d. 3rd degree heart block
a. Idioventricular
b. 2 degree type 2
c. 2 degree type 1
d. 3rd degree heart block
54.
a. Ventricular tachycardia
b. Ventricular fibrillation
c. Idioventricular
d. SVT
55.
a. Ventricular tachycardia
b. Ventricular fibrillation
c. Idioventricular
d. SVT
56.
a. Sinus bradycardia
b. Normal sinus
c. Junctional rhythm
d. Sinus tachycardia
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