http://www.aoml.noaa.gov/general/lib/stormsurgey.html
http://storms.nos.noaa.gov/index.html
The difference between a "storm surge" and a "tidal surge" is that a
storm surge may occur with any state of the tide and a tidal surge is a
storm surge imposed upon a incoming high tide. This is my own definition
for tidal surge because I was unable to find a definition that I agreed
with. A "tidal wave" is a popular misnomer that is used in place of the
correct word "Tsunami".
frank1492 wrote:
>
> Could someone please differentiate between "storm surge,"
> "tidal surge" and "tidal wave?" I know what the technical
> definition of a tidal wave is, and I THOUGHT I knew what
> storm surge meant, but now the term "tidal surge" crops
> up, which Dan Rather says is the new term for "tidal wave."
> Or is this all just really sloppy semantics from people
> who wouldn't know a crest from a trough?
> Help much appreciated!
> Frank
http://www.ametsoc.org/AMS/memb/onlinemembservices/index.cfm
and found no listing- hence, my interpretation.
There was a usage at:
http://www.sun-sentinel.com/news/weather/hurricane/sns-hc-saffirqanda.story
which you may find of interest.
On Fri, 04 Oct 2002 13:53:26 GMT, Donald Rosenfeld
The best person to comment further, I believe, would be Sim Aberson.
Tidal Surge: "A topographically dependent abnormality of rapid water
rise on an incoming tide."
http://www.scottwalking.com/quickfacts.html
Donald Rosenfeld wrote:
>
> Well, actually, no; I think that the use of "Tidal Surge" is a public
> misuse of the concept of "Storm Surge" which is recognized by
> professional meteorologists to have a very clear meaning. But, in the
> absence of a clear differing definition for "Tidal Surge" I am, as
> usual, happy to extend to the Meteorological World the Rosenfeld
> definition of a "Tidal Surge" which is as follows: "a Tidal Surge is a
> storm surge imposed upon an incoming high tide."
On Sat, 05 Oct 2002 05:45:24 GMT, Donald Rosenfeld
"Formally" or "formerly"?
-- Mark M.
On 6 Oct 2002 15:18:23 GMT, mama...@unagi.cis.upenn.edu (Mark A.
I've often seen people write "formally" when they obviously meant
"formerly", but I don't recall ever seeing the reverse. The unstressed
"er" sound tends to lose its "r"-ness and become a(n "r"-less) schwa, the
sound in "form<a>lly". And IMHO yes, he would be wrong either way.
-- Dr. Whom, Consulting Linguist, Grammarian, Orthoepist, and
Philological Busybody
a.k.a. Mark A. Mandel