I think we have agreed that the statement of the coverage problem is
There exists a complex number x such that x is not an algebraic integer but n*x is an algebraic integer for all integers n that aren't zero or a unit.
I'd like now to step through the construction in http://somemath.blogspot.co.uk/2015/11/non-polynomial-factorization-short.html and try to understand it if that's alright with you. It's bed time over here so this will be my last post of the day.
Before we can start, what are the definitions of
a) integer-like numbers.
b) primitive quadratic with integer coefficients from the complex numbers to the complex numbers
- What is a test for a number to be integer-like? and
- what does primitive mean in this context?
My last post seems to have been deleted. Was this by accident or deliberate?
I realise that you are not obliged by your rules to give me a reason
On Tuesday, November 14, 2017 at 4:57:07 AM UTC-5, Haydon Berrow wrote:We seem to be at an impasse. The opening sentence of http://somemath.blogspot.co.uk/2015/11/non-polynomial-factorization-short.html is
It can be shown that there must exist additional numbers besides algebraic integers, which are also integer-like numbers.
and the proof starts with
... P(x) is a primitive quadratic with integer coefficients ....
If neither of us knows what integer-like describes then I don't see how I can understand a proof that a number satisfies the definition. Similarly, the proofI explained to you. I merely gave reference to cover all the bases. Integer-like numbers behave like integers in key ways, like 4+2i has 2 as a factor, and can be coprime with other numbers like 1+3i is coprime to 3. I like using gaussian integers as easy to highlight.Integer-like numbers are NOT rational numbers that otherwise behave like integers. They also are NOT in any way like fractions.So 1/(1+3i) is NOT an integer-like numbers.starts with a primitive quadratic so presumably this is needed but, again, if neither of us knows what it means then I don't see how I understand a proof that uses its properties.It JUST means that there is no common factor to divide across the coefficients in this context.Like: 175x2 - 15x + 2 = 0 is primitive.5x2 - 15x + 20 = 0, is not. Understand now?Can you see a way forward?Apparently I needed to simplify with you. If I give you too much detail you not only claim to not understand, you decide I don't either!Remarkable.___JSH
On Tuesday, November 14, 2017 at 10:56:33 AM UTC, JSH wrote:
On Tuesday, November 14, 2017 at 4:57:07 AM UTC-5, Haydon Berrow wrote:We seem to be at an impasse. The opening sentence of http://somemath.blogspot.co.uk/2015/11/non-polynomial-factorization-short.html is
It can be shown that there must exist additional numbers besides algebraic integers, which are also integer-like numbers.
and the proof starts with
... P(x) is a primitive quadratic with integer coefficients ....
If neither of us knows what integer-like describes then I don't see how I can understand a proof that a number satisfies the definition. Similarly, the proofI explained to you. I merely gave reference to cover all the bases. Integer-like numbers behave like integers in key ways, like 4+2i has 2 as a factor, and can be coprime with other numbers like 1+3i is coprime to 3. I like using gaussian integers as easy to highlight.Integer-like numbers are NOT rational numbers that otherwise behave like integers. They also are NOT in any way like fractions.So 1/(1+3i) is NOT an integer-like numbers.starts with a primitive quadratic so presumably this is needed but, again, if neither of us knows what it means then I don't see how I understand a proof that uses its properties.It JUST means that there is no common factor to divide across the coefficients in this context.Like: 175x2 - 15x + 2 = 0 is primitive.5x2 - 15x + 20 = 0, is not. Understand now?Can you see a way forward?Apparently I needed to simplify with you. If I give you too much detail you not only claim to not understand, you decide I don't either!Remarkable.___JSHAh, OK, so the definition of a primitive quadratic with integer coefficients is that there is no common factor to the coefficients. Another example would be x2+3x+2. I was foxed because you wrote "Am thinking in THIS context was just to say quadratic was not a multiple of something". It may be a difference in language because over here that would imply uncertainty.
I'm still struggling with what integer-like means and I realise that it looks as if I am being difficult, but that's not my intention. I want to settle it before we go further because your explanation says that the construction will produce integer-like numbers and so it must end with "and these numbers are integer-like because .... and .... and ....". I can't find the post, I don't know why, but I think you said the numbers must satisfy key-properties such as being able to define coprimeness.
Question 1) is integer-like a property of a single number or a set of numbers?
Question 2) what is a complete list of the key properties?
To illustrate my confusion, consider the ring Z[π] which I believe to consist of all numbers that can be expressed as a finite sum of integer-multiples of powers of pi. ie all numbers of the form a0 + a1π + a2π2 + ... + an-1πn-1 + anπn for some integer n. Coprimeness can be defined in this ring, so is π integer-like or is the ring integer-like?
I'm going to have to look up what coprime means, I know that there are subtle problems because prime is not the same as irreducible.
Oh dear, are you saying that they are the same:Definition: A number is integer-like if and only if it is in the Object Ring?
I struggled with your definition of the Object Ring for years without understanding it. My first problem is that sets are usually defined by saying something like "the set S is a set of things with <this property>". eg
and the property is about that element only. After that I then have to prove that the set is a ring. Sometimes it isn't obvious
- The set of algebraic integers is the set of numbers x such that x satisfies some monic polynomial with integer coefficients
- The set of numbers x such that x satisfies a monic quadratic with integer coefficients
- The set of numbers x such that x can be written as a sum of three integers
- The set of numbers x such that x can be written as a sum of four integers
Your definition isn't like that. Its decision on whether a number x is in it depends on the other numbers in it. I immediately ask myself if I will find numbers x and y such that if one is in it then the other can't be and vice-versa. If I were to write
you would probably have to stop and think whether it is even well-defined. I admit it's not a good example but I can't think of a better
- the set of integers such that if a is in it, then there is another element b such that a+b is a prime number and if a+b is of the form 4n+1 then b isn't the sum of 3 cubes
My second problem is that you just declare it to be a ring. I've never seen a follow-up in which you prove that if x and y are in it then so are x+y and x times y.
Musings off the top of my head
- are (1+i)/√2, (1+√5)/2, (1+√7)/2, 1/(1+√2) integer-like and how would I prove it using this new definition? My first guess was that three of them are and one isn't, and then I remembered that integer-like is a property of sets of numbers and not individual numbers.
- why is it *the* object ring, why aren't there lots of rings with this property and are there any at all?
- why isn't pi in the object ring? If I were to take one object ring and append pi and 1/pi to it, why wouldn't I get another ring satisfying all the required properties?
You asked me why I was interested in this. I only want to understand the construction in http://somemath.blogspot.co.uk/2015/11/non-polynomial-factorization-short.html because I couldn't work out what was going on. I think that the Algebraic Numbers form a ring and so I think there must be an error
in the calculation of the properties of these new numbers but I'm not interested in finding it and I'm not interested in persuading you that there is an error;
just as you aren't interested in showing rotwang the reservations you had in the proof that the Algebraic Integers are a ring. I'll be upset if you say later on that I have a hidden agenda.
Do you think I can understand the construction without understanding the definition of the object ring?
On Thursday, November 16, 2017 at 12:01:44 PM UTC-5, Haydon Berrow wrote:
Musings off the top of my head
- are (1+i)/√2, (1+√5)/2, (1+√7)/2, 1/(1+√2) integer-like and how would I prove it using this new definition? My first guess was that three of them are and one isn't, and then I remembered that integer-like is a property of sets of numbers and not individual numbers.
If you can find another number that multiplies times those numbers to get an integer, is first step. Understand?
- why isn't pi in the object ring? If I were to take one object ring and append pi and 1/pi to it, why wouldn't I get another ring satisfying all the required properties?
Can you give ANY number that multiplies times pi to get an integer, which does not violate the rules given? Answer is, no.
On Thursday, November 16, 2017 at 5:46:39 PM UTC, JSH wrote:
On Thursday, November 16, 2017 at 12:01:44 PM UTC-5, Haydon Berrow wrote:The object ring is defined by two conditions, and includes all numbers such that these conditions are true:
1. 1 and -1 are the only rationals that are units in the ring.
2. Given a member m of the ring there must exist a non-zero member n such that mn is an integer, and if mn is not a factor of m, then n cannot be a unit in the ring.Musings off the top of my head
- are (1+i)/√2, (1+√5)/2, (1+√7)/2, 1/(1+√2) integer-like and how would I prove it using this new definition? My first guess was that three of them are and one isn't, and then I remembered that integer-like is a property of sets of numbers and not individual numbers.
If you can find another number that multiplies times those numbers to get an integer, is first step. Understand?First step ...
- (1+i)/√2, yes. 2*√2/(1+i)
- (1+√5)/2, yes, 4/(1+√5),
- (1+√7)/2, yes, 10/(1+√7)
- 1/(1+√2), yes, 2(1+√2)
what's the next step?
- why isn't pi in the object ring? If I were to take one object ring and append pi and 1/pi to it, why wouldn't I get another ring satisfying all the required properties?
Can you give ANY number that multiplies times pi to get an integer, which does not violate the rules given? Answer is, no.2/pi multiplies times pi to give 2, an integer. Is 2 a factor of pi? I don't know but I'm beginning to see the argument.
I can't find the post in which you give some numbers that are integer-like (and so in the object ring). Can you give me 5 examples to chew on?
On Sunday, November 19, 2017 at 12:17:29 PM UTC-5, Haydon Berrow wrote:On Thursday, November 16, 2017 at 5:46:39 PM UTC, JSH wrote:
On Thursday, November 16, 2017 at 12:01:44 PM UTC-5, Haydon Berrow wrote:The object ring is defined by two conditions, and includes all numbers such that these conditions are true:
1. 1 and -1 are the only rationals that are units in the ring.
2. Given a member m of the ring there must exist a non-zero member n such that mn is an integer, and if mn is not a factor of m, then n cannot be a unit in the ring.Musings off the top of my head
- are (1+i)/√2, (1+√5)/2, (1+√7)/2, 1/(1+√2) integer-like and how would I prove it using this new definition? My first guess was that three of them are and one isn't, and then I remembered that integer-like is a property of sets of numbers and not individual numbers.
If you can find another number that multiplies times those numbers to get an integer, is first step. Understand?First step ...
- (1+i)/√2, yes. 2*√2/(1+i)
- (1+√5)/2, yes, 4/(1+√5),
- (1+√7)/2, yes, 10/(1+√7)
- 1/(1+√2), yes, 2(1+√2)
Is the result of any operation on that number a number not allowed, like a fraction? 1/2 is not allowed. Do you know why?
what's the next step?
- why isn't pi in the object ring? If I were to take one object ring and append pi and 1/pi to it, why wouldn't I get another ring satisfying all the required properties?
Can you give ANY number that multiplies times pi to get an integer, which does not violate the rules given? Answer is, no.2/pi multiplies times pi to give 2, an integer. Is 2 a factor of pi? I don't know but I'm beginning to see the argument.How do you construct pi?
I can't find the post in which you give some numbers that are integer-like (and so in the object ring). Can you give me 5 examples to chew on?I could. But choose to not do so.
On Monday, November 20, 2017 at 3:05:20 PM UTC, JSH wrote:
On Sunday, November 19, 2017 at 12:17:29 PM UTC-5, Haydon Berrow wrote:On Thursday, November 16, 2017 at 5:46:39 PM UTC, JSH wrote:
On Thursday, November 16, 2017 at 12:01:44 PM UTC-5, Haydon Berrow wrote:The object ring is defined by two conditions, and includes all numbers such that these conditions are true:
1. 1 and -1 are the only rationals that are units in the ring.
2. Given a member m of the ring there must exist a non-zero member n such that mn is an integer, and if mn is not a factor of m, then n cannot be a unit in the ring.Musings off the top of my head
- are (1+i)/√2, (1+√5)/2, (1+√7)/2, 1/(1+√2) integer-like and how would I prove it using this new definition? My first guess was that three of them are and one isn't, and then I remembered that integer-like is a property of sets of numbers and not individual numbers.
If you can find another number that multiplies times those numbers to get an integer, is first step. Understand?First step ...
- (1+i)/√2, yes. 2*√2/(1+i)
- (1+√5)/2, yes, 4/(1+√5),
- (1+√7)/2, yes, 10/(1+√7)
- 1/(1+√2), yes, 2(1+√2)
Is the result of any operation on that number a number not allowed, like a fraction? 1/2 is not allowed. Do you know why?Yes, trivially, because, for example, I could multiply by (1+√2)/10 and (1+√2)/10 * 2(1+√2) = 1/5 by the first half of your definition but I don't think this is what you mean.
what's the next step?
- why isn't pi in the object ring? If I were to take one object ring and append pi and 1/pi to it, why wouldn't I get another ring satisfying all the required properties?
Can you give ANY number that multiplies times pi to get an integer, which does not violate the rules given? Answer is, no.2/pi multiplies times pi to give 2, an integer. Is 2 a factor of pi? I don't know but I'm beginning to see the argument.How do you construct pi?I don't need to construct pi. We are working in a subset of the real numbers and I appended pi so it is already there
I can't find the post in which you give some numbers that are integer-like (and so in the object ring). Can you give me 5 examples to chew on?I could. But choose to not do so.That's unhelpful. I'll choose to abandon my effort to understand the Object Set and go on to try to understand that construction without understanding objects.
On Tuesday, November 21, 2017 at 5:11:29 AM UTC-5, Haydon Berrow wrote:
On Thursday, November 16, 2017 at 12:01:44 PM UTC-5, Haydon Berrow wrote:
The object ring is defined by two conditions, and includes all numbers such that these conditions are true:
1. 1 and -1 are the only rationals that are units in the ring.
2. Given a member m of the ring there must exist a non-zero member n such that mn is an integer, and if mn is not a factor of m, then n cannot be a unit in the ring.
1/(1+√2), yes, 2(1+√2)
Is the result of any operation on that number a number not allowed, like a fraction? 1/2 is not allowed. Do you know why?
Yes, trivially, because, for example, I could multiply by (1+√2)/10 and (1+√2)/10 * 2(1+√2) = 1/5 by the first half of your definition but I don't think this is what you mean.
On Wednesday, November 22, 2017 at 2:30:05 PM UTC-5, Haydon Berrow wrote:Just checking, but are you saying that
- 1/(1+√2) is not in the Object Set, but
- √2 is in the Object Set
Yeah. You're struggling with the concept: exclusion rules.
On Thursday, November 23, 2017 at 3:39:14 PM UTC, JSH wrote:
On Wednesday, November 22, 2017 at 2:30:05 PM UTC-5, Haydon Berrow wrote:Just checking, but are you saying that
- 1/(1+√2) is not in the Object Set, but
- √2 is in the Object Set
Yeah. You're struggling with the concept: exclusion rules.You are absolutely right, I'm struggling.
- I gave some numbers and asked how I determined if they were in the Object Set.
- You asked if I could do an operation to each of them to produce an integer.
- I said yes, here are numbers that you can multiply by to get an integer (and we don't know whether they, themselves, are in the Object Set)
- You said that showed they weren't in the set
- I can do the same with √2 and yet that doesn't show that √2 isn't in the set
I'm almost certain that there is a mistake somewhere and 1/(1+√2) is in the set after all
On Friday, November 24, 2017 at 4:20:21 AM UTC-5, Haydon Berrow wrote:
On Thursday, November 23, 2017 at 3:39:14 PM UTC, JSH wrote:
On Wednesday, November 22, 2017 at 2:30:05 PM UTC-5, Haydon Berrow wrote:Just checking, but are you saying that
- 1/(1+√2) is not in the Object Set, but
- √2 is in the Object Set
Yeah. You're struggling with the concept: exclusion rules.You are absolutely right, I'm struggling.
- I gave some numbers and asked how I determined if they were in the Object Set.
- You asked if I could do an operation to each of them to produce an integer.
- I said yes, here are numbers that you can multiply by to get an integer (and we don't know whether they, themselves, are in the Object Set)
- You said that showed they weren't in the set
Really? Are you sure? If so, was I right, or wrong?
The object ring includes ALL numbers such that the rules are not broken. So any number is included, if is not excluded.
- which numbers are allowed in the construction?
- what does "in the context of X" mean?
- why does this crop up with the object set? It isn't mentioned in the definition.
- which operations are allowed?
Ring operations
- which numbers are allowed in the construction?
Members of the ring.
- what does "in the context of X" mean?
Huh?
- why does this crop up with the object set? It isn't mentioned in the definition.
Ring operations are allowed. A construction involves using valid ring operations with members of the ring.